Answer:
i think d
Step-by-step explanation:
:)
The formula of the future value of annuity ordinary is
Fv=pmt [(1+r/k)^(kn)-1)÷(r/n)]
So we need to solve for pmt
Pmt=fv÷[(1+r/k)^(kn)-1)÷(r/n)]
Pmt=200,000÷(((1+0.10÷4)^(4×5)
−1)÷(0.10÷4))=7,829.43...answer
Hope it helps
Answer: The solution would be any value that is -2 and lower.
Step-by-step explanation:
Okay, so our equation is c ≤ -2, so any value that is -2 and below would be correct for this inequality.
Please open the image to see the answer so the first one
Answer:
answer a
Step-by-step explanation:
< 
- Let's isolate
on one side of the equation. Ignore the inequality for now. We'll deal with that later.
- Now, I'm going to bring back the inequality or < symbol. I only removed it when simplifying and isolating , but if this confuses you, just do your math and keep the inequality there.
< 
- On a number line, this would include every number <em>less than </em>, due to the < (less than) symbol. This disqualifies answers b and d because they are showing every number <em>greater than </em>. But, how do we decide between answers a and c?
- If a line has point at its beginning, , then that means that every number <em>less than or equal to</em> [ ≤ ] 6 is being shown, but our equation just says <em>less than </em>[ < ] 6, so answer a is our correct answer.
