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a_sh-v [17]
4 years ago
14

A share of preferred stock for Marshall Manufacturing currently sells for $120. It offers the investor a dividend rate of 8%, on

a par value of $100.
Business
1 answer:
Komok [63]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Po = $120

D = 8% x $100 = $8

Kp = D/Po

Kp = 8/120

Kp = 0.0667 = 6.67%

Explanation:

The question requires the computation of cost of preferred stock. In this case, we will calculate the current dividend paid based on the par value of the stock. Then, we need to divide the current dividend paid by the current market price of the stock. This gives cost of preferred stock.

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What most likely will happen if the pie maker bakes a seventh pie?
Korvikt [17]

Answer:

The marginal cost will most likely increase to $2.00

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The president of the company you work for has asked you to evaluate the proposed acquisition of a new chromatograph for the firm
Tems11 [23]

Answer:

Part A)

Year 0 net cash flow would comprise of basic price, modification cost and requirement for net working capital. The formula for cash flow in Year 0 would be:

Year 0 Net Cash Flow = -Basic Price - Modification Cost - NWC

______________

Using the values provided in the question, we get,

Year 0 Net Cash Flow = -190,000 - 47,500 - 9,500 = -$247,000

______________________

Part B:

Year 1, 2 and 3 would required adjustment for depreciation charges (under MACRS) against expected savings. The depreciation rates for 3 year class asset would be 33%, 45% and 15% for Year 1, Year 2 and Year 3 respectively.

Depreciation would be calculated on the equipment's basic price and modification cost.

The formula that can be used to calculate the net operating cash flow would be:

Net Operating Cash Flow = (Sales - Depreciation)*(1-Tax Rate) + Depreciation

______________

Using the values provided in the question, we get, the table in the attached file

Important Information:

Depreciation (Year 1) = (190,000 + 47,500)*33% = $78,375

Depreciation (Year 2) = (190,000 + 47,500)*45% = $106,875

Depreciation (Year 3) = (190,000 + 47,500)*15% = $35,625

______________________

Part C:

Additional non operating cash flow would consist of after-tax salvage value and return of net working capital. Relevant formulas are:

Additional Non Operating Cash Flow = After Tax Salvage Value + Return of Net Working Capital

After Tax Salvage Value = Sales Value +/- Tax on Loss/Gain from Sale of Asset

Loss/Gain from Sale of Asset = Sales Value - Book Value

Book Value = (Basic Price + Modification Cost)*(1-(33%+45%+15%))

______________

Using the above mentioned formulas, we get,

Book Value = (190000 + 47500)*(1-(33%+45%+15%)) = $16,625

Gain on Sale of Equipment = 66,500 - 16,625 = $49,875

Tax on Gain = $49,875*30% = $14,962.50

After Tax Salvage Value = 66,500 - 14,962.50 = $51,537.50

_____________________

Additional (Non Operating) Cash Flow = $51,537.50 + $9,500 = $61,037.50 or $61,038

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
In which account are postage stamps classified?
castortr0y [4]
The answer to this is D
4 0
4 years ago
The process of determining who is the​ best, who sets the​ standards, and what those standards​ are, is known as​ ________.
Sloan [31]

Answer:

The correct answer is B. benchmarking.

Explanation:

Benchmarking is a continuous process by which the products, services or work processes of leading companies are taken as a reference, to compare them with those of your own company and then make improvements and implement them.

It is not about copying what your competition is doing, but learning what leaders are doing to implement it in your company by adding improvements. If we take as a reference those who stand out in the area we want to improve and study their strategies, methods and techniques for post

5 0
3 years ago
Vaughn Manufacturing incurred the following costs for 84000 units: Variable costs $504000 Fixed costs 392000 Vaughn has received
Damm [24]

Answer:

$7.8

Explanation:

Variable costs = $504,000

Fixed costs = $392,000

Number of units produced = 84,000

Shipping charges = $4,500

Therefore, the variable cost per unit is calculated as follows:

= Variable costs ÷ Number of units produced

= $504,000 ÷ 84,000

= $6 per unit

Incremental fixed cost per unit (For 2,500):

= Shipping cost ÷ 2,500

= $4,500 ÷ 2,500

= $1.8 per unit

Therefore, the unit sales price will be the sum total of variable cost per unit and incremental fixed cost per unit for the shipping charges.

BEP (in sales price per unit):

= Variable cost per unit + incremental fixed cost per unit

= $6 + $1.8

= $7.8

4 0
3 years ago
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