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SpyIntel [72]
3 years ago
11

GIVING BRAINLIEST TO THE CORRECT ANSWER!!

Mathematics
2 answers:
Slav-nsk [51]3 years ago
8 0

Step-by-step explanation:

No of total brown = 2 + 1 = 3 .

probability = 3 / 6

= 1 /2 .

no of males = 2

probability

= 2 / 6

= 1 /3

no of person who is both male and brown = 1

probability = 1 /6

Required probability

= probability of being brown + probability of being male - probability of being both

= 1 / 2 + 1 / 3 - 1 /6

= 4 / 6

= 2 / 3 .

DochEvi [55]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

2/9 I think

Step-by-step explanation:

If there are two brown females and one brown male those are exact. Then there are 3 more puppies that can be any color. So you add up all the posibilities wich is 9 and then there are two possibilities that they will be male AND brown. So 2/9 I think

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A company sells widgets. The amount of profit, y, made by the company, is related to the selling price of each widget, x, by the
Anastasy [175]

Answer: 19.4

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

Profit is given in terms of the selling price

y=-5x^2+194x-900

to get the maximum price, differentiate y w.r.t x

\frac{\mathrm{d} y}{\mathrm{d} x}=-5\times 2x+194

Put  \frac{\mathrm{d} y}{\mathrm{d} x}=0 to get maximum value

10x=194\\x=19.4

Thus, the company must sell it at 19.4

8 0
3 years ago
For what value of x is 1/2 x = -9<br><br> x = 18<br> x= -4<br> x=-18<br> x= -36
Luda [366]

Answer:

x = -18

Step-by-step explanation:

Isolate the variable, x. Note the equal sign, what you do to one side, you do to the other.

Multiply 2 to both sides:

(x/2) * 2 = (-9) * 2

x = -9 * 2

x = -18

x = -18 is your answer.

~

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please help me solve 8x+2y=32 and 10x-5y=-20
Tju [1.3M]

Answer:

(2,8)

x = 2

y = 8

Step-by-step explanation:

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7 0
3 years ago
-2^x+3=-3^-x-2 solve for x
Sindrei [870]

Answer:

x = 2.34373881

There you go

8 0
3 years ago
Find an explicit solution of the given initial-value problem. (1 + x4) dy + x(1 + 4y2) dx = 0, y(1) = 0
MissTica

Answer:

a solution is 1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*y) = - tan⁻¹ (x²) + π/4

Step-by-step explanation:

for the equation

(1 + x⁴) dy + x*(1 + 4y²) dx = 0

(1 + x⁴) dy  = - x*(1 + 4y²) dx

[1/(1 + 4y²)] dy = [-x/(1 + x⁴)] dx

∫[1/(1 + 4y²)] dy = ∫[-x/(1 + x⁴)] dx

now to solve each integral

I₁= ∫[1/(1 + 4y²)] dy = 1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*y) + C₁

I₂=  ∫[-x/(1 + x⁴)] dx

for u= x² → du=x*dx

I₂=  ∫[-x/(1 + x⁴)] dx = -∫[1/(1 + u² )] du = - tan⁻¹ (u) +C₂ =  - tan⁻¹ (x²) +C₂

then

1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*y) = - tan⁻¹ (x²) +C

for y(x=1) = 0

1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*0) = - tan⁻¹ (1²) +C

since tan⁻¹ (1²) for π/4+ π*N and tan⁻¹ (0) for  π*N , we will choose for simplicity N=0 . hen an explicit solution would be

1/2 * 0 = - π/4 + C

C= π/4

therefore

1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*y) = - tan⁻¹ (x²) + π/4

5 0
3 years ago
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