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patriot [66]
3 years ago
7

Consider the series ​

Mathematics
1 answer:
alukav5142 [94]3 years ago
4 0

(a) If

f(x)=\displaystyle \sum_{n=0}^\infty (-1)^n \frac{(x+1)^n}{(n+1)!}

then by the ratio test, the series converges for all <em>x</em>, since

\displaystyle \lim_{n\to\infty} \left| \frac{ (-1)^{n+1} \frac{(x+1)^{n+1}}{(n+2)!} }{ (-1)^n \frac{(x+1)^n}{(n+1)!} } \right|=\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{|x+1|}{n+2}=0

so the series radius of convergence is ∞ and the interval of convergence is (-∞, ∞).

(b) The series converges everywhere absolutely, because the ratio test for

\displaystyle \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{|x+1|^n}{(n+1)!}

also shows the radius of convergence is ∞.

(c) The series converges absolutely, so conditional convergence is moot.

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