Answer:
When an economy produces at full employment, but consumers, government, there is a recessionary gap - Option B.
Explanation:
According to the Keynesian perspective, firms produce output only if they expect it to sell.
While the availability of the factors of production determines a nation’s potential gross domestic product (GDP), the amount of goods and services actually being sold, known as real GDP depends on how much demand exists across the economy.
Keynes termed a fall in the aggregate demand as a recessionary gap.
A recessionary gap refers to an economy operating at a level below its full-employment equilibrium. Under this condition, the level of real gross domestic product (GDP) is lower than the level of full employment, which puts downward pressure on prices in the long run.
Thus, when an economy produces at full employment, but consumers, government, there is a recessionary gap - Option B.
Answer:
The correct answer is C. Credits decrease assets and increase liabilities.
Explanation:
A credit is a provision of money in the form of a loan, granted by a creditor (lender) to a debtor (borrower). For the creditor, the transaction gives rise to a claim on the borrower, under which he can obtain repayment of the funds and payment of remuneration (interest) according to a fixed schedule. For the borrower, whether it is a business or an individual, the credit establishes the existence of a debt (increasing liabilities) and opens the availability of a temporary financial resource.
It is a completely false statement that HMO <span>coverage has much more flexibility than PPO coverage. The correct option among the two options that are given in the question is the second option. I hope that this is the answer that you were looking for and the answer has actually come to your help.</span>
Answer:
$355 unfavorable
Explanation:
Budgeted supplies cost was [$1,860 + (635 frames x $ 11)] = ($1,860 + $6,985) = $8,845
Actual supplies cost was $9,200, so the variance was = budgeted cost - actual cost = $8,845 - $9,200 = $355 unfavorable
Since the actual supplies cost was higher than the budgeted supplies cost, then the variance must be unfavorable (because more money was spent than expected).
Answer:
The investment advisory firm which employs the investment adviser representative (IAR).
Explanation:
FINRA's rules specifically state that before any transaction, the IAR must have a signed power of attorney. The IAR cannot start trading or operating with the client's money until he/she has received a signed written power of attorney from the client. Only after the signed power of attorney has been given tot eh IAR, can he/she act on discretionary basis.
If the IAR is not a registered broker-dealer, then NASAA rules state that oral agreements are valid for up to 10 business days, but the IAR must have a written authorization after that time expires. I.e. the IAR could buy the stocks, but he/she was not authorized to sell them. So any loss is responsibility of the firm that employs the IAR.
