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jolli1 [7]
2 years ago
14

X is ........... variable | Maths Questions

Mathematics
2 answers:
makvit [3.9K]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

B. Independent

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps

Marianna [84]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

B. Independent

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps

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Lola has 36713 pencils to make. She already made 9677 pencils. How many pencils does she have left to make? **20 points***
abruzzese [7]
36713 - 9677 = 27036 more pencils left to make
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If I have an acid with a pH of 5 and an acid with a pH of 3 which is stronger and by how much? 5, by 10 times
melamori03 [73]

Answer:

3, by 100 times

Step-by-step explanation:

a pH of 3 is ten times more acidic than a pH of 4. Likewise, a pH of 3 is one hundred times more acidic than a pH of 5.

6 0
3 years ago
Customers at a gas station pay with a credit card (A), debit card (B), or cash (C). Assume that successive customers make indepe
Maurinko [17]

Answer:

Mean = 20

Variance = 16

Step-by-step explanation:

Solution:-

- Let X be the number of customers paying with a debit card.  X has the binomial distribution with n = 100 trials and success probability p = 0.2  

- In general, if X has the binomial distribution with (n) trials and a success probability of (p) then:

                 P[X = x] = n!/(x!(n-x)!) * p^x * (1-p)^(n-x)

                 for values of x = 0, 1, 2, ..., n  

                 P[X = x] = 0 for any other value of x.

- The probability mass function is derived by looking at the number of combination of x objects chosen from n objects and then a total of x success and n - x failures.  

- Or, in other words, the binomial is the sum of n independent and identically distributed Bernoulli trials.

                  X ~ Binomial( n = 100 , p = 0.2 )

- The mean of the binomial distribution is n * p = 20  

- The variance of the binomial distribution is n * p * (1 - p) = 16  

7 0
3 years ago
Y’all i need help on the last one
stira [4]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Kindly share the exact question

5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Convert the polar coordinates (120.2, 119°) into rectangular coordinates. Round the rectangular coordinates to the nearest hundr
Alchen [17]
The conversion is
  x = magnitude × cos(angle)
  y = magnitude × sin(angle)
or
  (x, y) = 120.2(cos(119°), sin(119°)) ≈ (-58.27, 105.13)

_____
A suitable graphing calculator handles this easily.
7 0
2 years ago
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