1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
gtnhenbr [62]
3 years ago
9

Why was it important for farmers that everyone be charged the same rates ?

History
1 answer:
iren2701 [21]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Farmer's profit came from the amount of harvest they get, and almost all of them do not own their own land therefore they are paid according to hour work. Their salary depends on the Landlord or the person who owns the land and in reality they are paid 40 pesos a day or 0.90 dollars, unfair profit for a daily work. We schould pay them equally and fairly so that our crops and goods will double up by treating them well.

Explanation:

You might be interested in
Please help with fill in blank
chubhunter [2.5K]

Answer:

1 political

2 constitunal convetion

3 articals of confederation

4 state

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Y’all please help<br><br> Explain the way the Chinese saw themselves.
Montano1993 [528]

They named themselves the middle kingdom because they saw themselves as the center of the world.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
From what city did Belisarius and his army originally set sail to make their attack on the Vandal Kingdom?
Leto [7]
<span>D is the answer. Belisarius was a Roman general in the Eastern Roman, or Byzantine, empire. The capital city of the Byzantine empire was Constantinople. From here Belisarius and his army sailed to North Africa toward the Vandal capital city, Carthage.</span>
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Select All of the following that are TRUE about the American Revolution
Mila [183]

Answer:  its ideals were popular in the 18th century but have little meaning in the modern world

it sparked a civil war among the newly formed states

Explanation:

5 0
1 year ago
The term genocide only applies to the killing of Jewish people during world War ii?
Tems11 [23]
No, the term genocide applies to "any<span> intentional action to destroy a people (usually an ethnic, national, racial, or religious group) in whole or in part.''</span>
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Other questions:
  • In 1629 charles I dismissed parliament which violated the agreement
    10·1 answer
  • A historian wants to compare the causes of death in the people of a particular civilization. She wants to show each cause of dea
    6·2 answers
  • For history I need to find the likely hood that trump could get reelected. I dont really know does anyone have an idea?
    5·2 answers
  • Due Today!
    9·1 answer
  • Which protections are granted under both the US Bill of Rights and Article I of Michigan’s constitution?
    7·2 answers
  • 2. The violent conflict between the "Free
    15·2 answers
  • Solving with inequalities
    7·1 answer
  • Which quality best describes a producer with an absolute advantage?
    7·2 answers
  • What is something that shocked you for World War II?
    7·2 answers
  • Giving brainliest to first right answer
    15·2 answers
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!