Answer:
B. The hedge is asymmetric.
Explanation:
Hedging refers to a technique or a mechanism whereby firms and individuals aim for risk reduction, arising out of uncertain and volatile business situations, which may result into a heavy loss.
For example, an exporter entering into a forward contract to eliminate or reduce the risk of arising out of a future situation wherein, future receipts denominated in a foreign currency, receivable at a future date, may be less than same receipts receivable at current spot exchange rate as on today.
Currency hedge ratio depicts the proportion of total exposure which is covered by hedge w.r.t the total exposure itself.
Asymmetrical hedge refers to covering an exposure by an opposite position wherein the chances of earning profits are higher than the losses current position can lead to. Such an hedge would be similar to covering a call option with a put option. Asymmetrical refers to being of dissimilar or non equal size. Here, it refers to the dissimilarity between prospective profits and losses.
Under a perfect hedge, the loss position in a scenario is completely covered i.e 100% by a prospective gain in other situation, with there being negative correlation between the two scenarios such as if scenario 1 yields a profit, scenario 2 would yield a loss and vice versa.
Answer:
$7.96
Explanation:
the first month's principal balance = $400 (initial purchase) - $20 (first payment) = $380
the second month's principal balance = $380 (carried over) + $18 (second purchase) = $398
the interest charged on the second month's principal = $398 x 2% = $7.96
Where v is velocity/speed
f is frequency
and lambda is wavelength
v=(500)(0.5)= 250 m/s
Hope this helps!
Answer:
A. the FCAC is less than the TBC
Explanation:
If the amount of cumulated actual costs is less than difference between the total budgeted cost and the re-estimate, then the FCAC is less than the TBC
