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1 answer:
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Answer: Machine B because it has the lower Present Value
Explanation:
<h2>Machine A</h2>= Present Value of income - Present Value of Costs
Present value of Income;
Sold for $5,000 after 10 years.
= 5,000/ (1 + 8%)^10
= $2,315.97
Present Value of Costs;
Purchased for $48,000.
Maintenance of $1,000 per year for years.
Present value of maintenance= 1,000 * Present value factor of annuity, 10 years, 8%
= 1,000 * 6.7101
= $6,710.10
Machine A Present Value
= 2,315.97 - 6,710.10 - 48,000
= -$52,394
<h2>Machine B</h2>No salvage value.
Present Value of costs
Purchased for $40,000.
Present value of maintenance = (4,000 / (1 + 8%)^3) + (5,000 / ( 1 + 8)^6) + (6,000 / ( 1 + 8%)^8)
= -$9,567.79
Present Value = -40,000 - 9,567.79
= -$49,568
Answer:
So, accounting rate of return = 33 %
Explanation:
given data
net income after tax = $179,850
initial cost = $545,000
time = 7 year
salvage value = $34,000
we will get here the accounting rate of return
solution
as we know that accounting rate of return is express as
accounting rate of return = Net income ÷ initial investment .................1
put here value and we get
accounting rate of return =
So, accounting rate of return = 33 %