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Naily [24]
3 years ago
9

This looks hard can someone help

Mathematics
1 answer:
sp2606 [1]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

SEE THE IMAGE FOR PUZZLE!!

I LIKED THE PUZZLE IT WAS INTERESTING !!!

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Answer:

k = 1

P(x > 3y) = \frac{2}{3}

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

f \left(x,y \right) = \left{ \begin{array} { l l } { k , } & { 0 \leq x} \leq 2,0 \leq y \leq 1,2 y  \leq x }  & { \text 0, { elsewhere. } } \end{array} \right.

Solving (a):

Find k

To solve for k, we use the definition of joint probability function:

\int\limits^a_b \int\limits^a_b {f(x,y)} \, = 1

Where

{ 0 \leq x} \leq 2,0 \leq y \leq 1,2 y  \leq x }

Substitute values for the interval of x and y respectively

So, we have:

\int\limits^2_{0} \int\limits^{x/2}_{0} {k\ dy\ dx} \, = 1

Isolate k

k \int\limits^2_{0} \int\limits^{x/2}_{0} {dy\ dx} \, = 1

Integrate y, leave x:

k \int\limits^2_{0} y {dx} \, [0,x/2]= 1

Substitute 0 and x/2 for y

k \int\limits^2_{0} (x/2 - 0) {dx} \,= 1

k \int\limits^2_{0} \frac{x}{2} {dx} \,= 1

Integrate x

k * \frac{x^2}{2*2} [0,2]= 1

k * \frac{x^2}{4} [0,2]= 1

Substitute 0 and 2 for x

k *[ \frac{2^2}{4} - \frac{0^2}{4} ]= 1

k *[ \frac{4}{4} - \frac{0}{4} ]= 1

k *[ 1-0 ]= 1

k *[ 1]= 1

k = 1

Solving (b): P(x > 3y)

We have:

f(x,y) = k

Where k = 1

f(x,y) = 1

To find P(x > 3y), we use:

\int\limits^a_b \int\limits^a_b {f(x,y)}

So, we have:

P(x > 3y) = \int\limits^2_0 \int\limits^{y/3}_0 {f(x,y)} dxdy

P(x > 3y) = \int\limits^2_0 \int\limits^{y/3}_0 {1} dxdy

P(x > 3y) = \int\limits^2_0 \int\limits^{y/3}_0  dxdy

Integrate x leave y

P(x > 3y) = \int\limits^2_0  x [0,y/3]dy

Substitute 0 and y/3 for x

P(x > 3y) = \int\limits^2_0  [y/3 - 0]dy

P(x > 3y) = \int\limits^2_0  y/3\ dy

Integrate

P(x > 3y) = \frac{y^2}{2*3} [0,2]

P(x > 3y) = \frac{y^2}{6} [0,2]\\

Substitute 0 and 2 for y

P(x > 3y) = \frac{2^2}{6} -\frac{0^2}{6}

P(x > 3y) = \frac{4}{6} -\frac{0}{6}

P(x > 3y) = \frac{4}{6}

P(x > 3y) = \frac{2}{3}

8 0
3 years ago
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