Answer: Y = 3x - 2
Work: Okay, let's take this step by step. Since the Y - Intercept is -2, put a dot on -2 on the (Y) Line. It also just so happens that the line goes through -2. Now with 3x. 3x is the same thing as 3x / 1. Since three is on the top, you go up three from -2, and then move over one spot because of the 1 (If it was a negative one, you go the opposite direction) Alright, now you see that the line also passes through that point as well, so it has to be y = 3x -2
<em>I hope this helps, and Happy Holidays! :)</em>
Step-by-step explanation:
a^2 + b^2 = c^2
(x+2)^2 + 4x^2 = (3x+4)^2
(x+2)(x+2)+ 4x^2= (3x+4)(3x+4)
x^2 + 2x + 2x + 4 + 4x^2 = 9x^2 + 12x + 12 x + 16
5x^2 + 4x + 4 = 9x^2 + 24x + 16
-4x^2 - 20x - 12 = 0
now we can use the quadratic formula
(-b±√(b²-4ac))/(2a)
I can't type all this so
.....
x = -0.697224362 or -4.302775638
AB can't be negative so it's the first one
so it's equals to 1.302775638
The formula of the future value of annuity ordinary is
Fv=pmt [(1+r/k)^(kn)-1)÷(r/k)]
Fv future value?
PMT payment 6200
r interest rate 0.06
K compounded semiannual 2
N time 5 years
Fv=6,200×(((1+0.06÷2)^(2×5)) ÷(0.06÷2))=277,742.72
Hope it helps
Answer:
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Step-by-step explanation:
