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3 years ago

C-5=10 ans plz......

Mathematics

2 answers:

Umnica [9.8K]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

$c = 5$

Step-by-step explanation:

$c - 5 = 10 \\ c = 10 + 5 \\ c = 15$

<h3>Hope it is helpful....</h3>

quester [9]3 years ago

4 0

Step-by-step explanation:

c-5=10
c=10+5
c=15

<h2>hope it helps.</h2><h2>stay safe healthy and happy..</h2>

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A baker blends 600 raisins and 400 chocolate chips into a dough mix and, from this, makes 500 cookies. (a) Find the probability

Nina [5.8K]

Answer:

a) P(X = 0) for raisins = 0.33287

b) P(X = 2) for chocolate chips = 0.14379

c) P(X ≥ 2) for both bits = 0.59399

Step-by-step explanation:

The average amount of raisin per cookie is 600/500 = 1.2

The average amount of chocolate chips per cookie = 400/500 = 0.8

a) Using Poisson's distribution function

P(X = x) = (e^-λ)(λˣ)/x!

For raisin, Mean = λ = 1.1

x = 0

P(X = 0) = (e⁻¹•¹)(1.1⁰)/(0!) = 0.33287

b) Using Poisson's distribution function

P(X = x) = (e^-λ)(λˣ)/x!

For chocolate chips, Mean = λ = 0.8

x = 2

P(X = 2) = (e⁻⁰•⁸)(0.8²)/(2!) = 0.14379

c) the probability that a randomly chosen cookie will have at least two bits (raisins or chips) in it.

For this, the average number of bit in a raisin = (600+400)/500 = 2 bits per raisin.

P(X ≥ 2) = 1 - [P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)]

For P(X = 0)

P(X = x) = (e^-λ)(λˣ)/x!

Mean = λ = 2

x = 0

P(X = 0) = (e⁻²)(2⁰)/(0!) = 0.13534

For P(X = 1)

P(X = x) = (e^-λ)(λˣ)/x!

Mean = λ = 2

x = 1

P(X = 1) = (e⁻²)(2¹)/(1!) = 0.27067

P(X ≥ 2) = 1 - [P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)]

P(X ≥ 2) = 1 - (0.13534 + 0.27067) = 1 - 0.40601 = 0.59399

8 0

3 years ago

For brainliest please help!

Advocard [28]

Answer:

negative multiples of 3 less than -3

Step-by-step explanation:

if m <9, then

m ={8,7,6,5,4,3,2,1,0,-1,-2,....,..........}

And |6m-55|

So is said that,

when, m= 8

6(8)-55=-6

when, m=7

6(7)-54=-12

when, m = 6

6(6)-54=-18

Since the trend is negative multiples of 3 less than -3

this is my answer

8 0

3 years ago

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Zina [86]

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3 years ago

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Anettt [7]

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3 years ago

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Anit [1.1K]

Answer:

The volume for a cone and pyramid are the same, V = 1/3 Bh where B is the area of the base.

Step-by-step explanation:

So even though the base is a different shape, as long as the areas and heights are the same, they will have the same volume.

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3 years ago