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ahrayia [7]
4 years ago
7

The sets of numbers 6, 8, 10 and 5, 12, 13 are Pythagorean triples. Use what you know about the Pythagorean Theorem and explain

or show why they are Pythagorean triples. Be sure to show your work for each set of triples! (5 points)
Mathematics
1 answer:
masya89 [10]4 years ago
3 0

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that the Pythagorean theorem is represented in the formula:

a^2 + B^2 = c^2

Where a and b are the legs of a right triangle, and c is the hypotenuse. Therefore, looking at the Pythagorean triples, we can infer that they are considered Pythagorean triples because they follow the Pythagorean theorem. To check if this is true, we can insert the numbers into theorem:

a^2 + b^2 = c^2

6^2 + 8^2 = 10^2

36 + 64 = 100

Since this equation is true, these three numbers could be the lengths of a right triangle, and are also therefore, a Pythagorean triple. We can also check the other three numbers:

a^2 + b^2 = c^2

5^2 + 12^2 = 13^2

25 + 144 = 169

Since this equation is also true, these three numbers could also be the side lengths of a right triangle, and are also therefore, a Pythagorean triple.

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Point to point indexed annuity.

Step-by-step explanation:

An indexed annuity is linked to specific index performance. Point to point indexed annuity is the one which gives interest on the basis of index percentage change. The interest credit is calculated by taking the percentage change between the beginning and end points of the index.

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Can anyone help me answer this please and thank you?​
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The answer should be 132 degrees.

Step-by-step explanation:

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The length of the observable universe is.
alekssr [168]

Answer:

Kindly check explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

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5 0
3 years ago
Find an explicit solution of the given initial-value problem. (1 + x4) dy + x(1 + 4y2) dx = 0, y(1) = 0
MissTica

Answer:

a solution is 1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*y) = - tan⁻¹ (x²) + π/4

Step-by-step explanation:

for the equation

(1 + x⁴) dy + x*(1 + 4y²) dx = 0

(1 + x⁴) dy  = - x*(1 + 4y²) dx

[1/(1 + 4y²)] dy = [-x/(1 + x⁴)] dx

∫[1/(1 + 4y²)] dy = ∫[-x/(1 + x⁴)] dx

now to solve each integral

I₁= ∫[1/(1 + 4y²)] dy = 1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*y) + C₁

I₂=  ∫[-x/(1 + x⁴)] dx

for u= x² → du=x*dx

I₂=  ∫[-x/(1 + x⁴)] dx = -∫[1/(1 + u² )] du = - tan⁻¹ (u) +C₂ =  - tan⁻¹ (x²) +C₂

then

1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*y) = - tan⁻¹ (x²) +C

for y(x=1) = 0

1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*0) = - tan⁻¹ (1²) +C

since tan⁻¹ (1²) for π/4+ π*N and tan⁻¹ (0) for  π*N , we will choose for simplicity N=0 . hen an explicit solution would be

1/2 * 0 = - π/4 + C

C= π/4

therefore

1/2 *tan⁻¹ (2*y) = - tan⁻¹ (x²) + π/4

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4 years ago
Write the sequence of transformations that changes figure ABCD to figure A'B'C'D'.
creativ13 [48]

Answer:

(x-2)(y+1)

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