Answer:
Suppose we have a random number A.
The multiplicative inverse of A is a number X such that:
A*X = 1
When we work with real numbers, X = 1/A
Then:
A*(1/A) = A/A = 1
This means that (1/A) is the multiplicative inverse of A.
Where we need to have A ≠ 0, because we can not divide by 0.
Now we want to find the multiplicative inverse of the numbers:
2: Here the inverse is (1/2) = 0.5
1/5: Here the inverse is (1/(1/5)) = (5/1) = 5
-4: Herre the inverse is (1/(-4)) = -(1/4) = -0.25
Answer:
IK
Step-by-step explanation:
If you draw out the triangles it is easier to see
Answer:
the answer is approximately 48.05.
Step-by-step explanation: You can either use a calculator or estimate knowing that 50 is the square root of 2500, which is slightly above 2309. You can also use differentials and calculus to find an approximation.
Answer:
0.74
Step-by-step explanation:
Step-by-step explanation:
This seems like you just want to figure out the circumference of the manhole cover. The formula for the circumference of a circle is pi (3.14) multiplied by the diameter (d) of the circle so, circumference=πd. (π is the symbol for pi and approx. equals 3.14)
Circumference = πd
= 3.14(d)
= 3.14(3)
= 9.42 ft.
The length of the brass grip-strip will be 9.42 ft.
If the problem was stated in terms of the radius of the manhole cover then the formula would be circumference = 2πr which is the radius multiplied by 2 then multiplied by pi.
The radius of a circle is the distance from the center to the edge and the diameter is the distance from one edge of the circle to the other passing through the center of the circle.
Well, if the grip strip were of no width and could be straightened out to a line (which a piece of rubber cut in a circle couldn't be), then the length of the grip would correspond to the circumference of the manhole cover.
Circumference = 2*PI*radius = PI*diameter so your answer is 3*PI feet long.
