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Yuliya22 [10]
3 years ago
15

The cost of estimated accounts receivable that will not be collected is referred to as

Business
1 answer:
Degger [83]3 years ago
3 0
Money. it can be referred to as money
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If the marginal propensity to consume is two thirds, then an increase in personal income taxes of $100 will most likely result i
rosijanka [135]

When personal income taxes is increased, there would be a decrease in consumption of $67.

<h3>What is the MPC?</h3>

The marginal propensity to consume is the proportion of the disposable income that is spent. When personal income taxes are increased, there would be a decrease in the disposable income. The decrease in disposable income would reduce the income avalialbe for consumption.

Decrease in consumption = 2/3 x $100 = $67

To learn more about marginal propensity to consume, please check: brainly.com/question/19089833

#SPJ1

4 0
2 years ago
44. What's the present value of a perpetuity that pays $250 per year if the appropriate interest rate is 5%?
snow_tiger [21]

Answer:

$5,000

Explanation:

A perpetuity pays $250 every year

The appropriate interest rate is 5%

= 5/100

= 0.05

Therefore the present value of the perpetuity can be calculated as follows

= 250/0.05

= $5,000

Hence the present value of the perpetuity is $5,000

7 0
3 years ago
At each calendar year-end, Mazie Supply Co. uses the percent of accounts receivable method to estimate bad debts. On December 31
finlep [7]

Answer:

Mazie Supply Co.

Adjusting entries under the assumptions that the allowance for doubtful accounts has:

a) A $415 credit balance before the adjustment:

Debit Bad Debts Expense $685

Credit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $685

To record the bad debts expense for the year.

b) A $291 debit balance before the adjustment:

Debit Bad Debts Expense $1,391

Credit Allowance for Doubtful Accounts $1,391

To record bad debts expense and bring the allowance for doubtful accounts to a balance of $1,100.

Explanation:

a) Accounts Receivable outstanding = $55,000

Uncollectible estimate of 2% =     $1,100

b) With a credit balance of $415, the balance will be brought to $1,100 with an adjusting amount of $685 ($1,100 - $415).,

c) With a debit balance of $291, the balance will be brought to $1,100 with an adjusting amount of $1,391 ($1,100 + 291).

d) When the allowance for doubtful accounts has a credit balance, the bad debts expense is calculated as the difference between the new balance and the old credit balance.  But, if the allowance for doubtful accounts has a debit balance, the bad debts expense would be the addition of the estimated allowance and the debit balance.  These actions will respectively bring the balance of the allowance for doubtful accounts to the new estimated balance.

4 0
4 years ago
Which would the SEC most likely penalize for violating a regulation?
Mila [183]
The correct answer for this question is this one: "Bank." <span>The SEC that most likely to penalize for violating a regulation is the bank. The SEC has the responsibility to penalize for any violations that has been committed - most especially those of related with banks.</span>
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
When a company's only potential common shares are convertible bonds:A. Diluted EPS will be greater if the bonds are actually con
geniusboy [140]

Answer:

Correct answer is (C)

Explanation:

Diluted EPS will be the same whether or not the bonds are converted.

Earning Per Share EPS

8 0
3 years ago
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