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3 years ago

What is 3a + 6 + 5a?

Mathematics

2 answers:

babunello [35]3 years ago

6 0

$\huge\text{Hey there!}$

$\huge\textsf{3a + 6 + 5a}$

$\huge\text{COMBINE the LIKE TERMS}$

$\huge\textsf{= (3a + 5a) + 6 }$

$\huge\textsf{= 8a + 6}$

$\huge\boxed{\text{Therefore, your answer is: \textsf{{8a + 6}}}}\huge\checkmark$

$\huge\text{Good luck on your assignment \& enjoy your day!}$

~ $\frak{Amphitrite1040:)}$

Bogdan [553]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

8a+6

Step-by-step explanation:

3a+6+5a=(3a+5a)+6

=8a+6

PLS MARK AS BRAINLIEST

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What is 2 multiplied by 4

Elis [28]

Answer:

2*4 is 8

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

the product of two number is 42.they are two consecutive numbers. the two numbers are both less than 10. what is the answer?

Serhud [2]

Answer:

6 and 7

Step-by-step explanation:

You first want to find the factors of 42. They are:

1,2,3,6,7,14,21,42

The factor pairs are:

1 & 42
2&21
3&14
6&7

The only factor pair with consecutive numbers is 6 and 7. They are both less than 10 as well, so 6 and 7 works.

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3 years ago

A bank in the Bay area is considering a training program for its staff. The probability that a new training program will increas

WITCHER [35]

Answer:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)') = 1-P(A \cap B)= 1-0.32=0.68$

See explanation below.

Step-by-step explanation:

For this case we define first some notation:

A= A new training program will increase customer satisfaction ratings

B= The training program can be kept within the original budget allocation

And for these two events we have defined the following probabilities

$P(A) = 0.8, P(B) = 0.2$

We are assuming that the two events are independent so then we have the following propert:

$P(A \cap B ) = P(A) * P(B)$

And we want to find the probability that the cost of the training program is not kept within budget or the training program will not increase the customer ratings so then if we use symbols we want to find:

$P(B' \cup A')$

And using the De Morgan laws we know that:

$(A \cap B)' = A' \cup B'$

So then we can write the probability like this:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)')$

And using the complement rule we can do this:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)')= 1-P(A \cap B)$

Since A and B are independent we have:

$P(A \cap B )=P(A)*P(B) =(0.8*0.4) =0.32$

And then our final answer would be:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)') = 1-P(A \cap B)= 1-0.32=0.68$

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3 years ago

Which line is the same as cd in the figure below

shtirl [24]

Answer: A.

Step-by-step explanation: if you look close enough, you can see exactly how long it is, and see that it does also have the two arrows along with it, but it’s the exact same just tilted a little bit but trust me I believe he correct answer is A.

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2 years ago

The Cadet football team has a giant water cooler that is currently holding 60 quarts of water.

Ulleksa [173]

Answer:

Part A: w(t)=60-4t

Part B: w(15)=60-60=0

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago