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german
2 years ago
9

(a+b)^3 ///////////////////////////

Mathematics
2 answers:
Allisa [31]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

(a+b)³ = a³+b³+3ab(a+b)

Step-by-step explanation:

hope it's helpful to you ☺️

stepan [7]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

What is the question you are asking?

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Jake is selling items for his baseball fundraiser he earns $10 for each mug (x) he sells and $20 for each shirt (y) he sells. He
Anna [14]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

we are given that selling price of each mug(x) is $10

Selling price of each shirt(y) is $20.

Jake wants to earn atleast $250 for his team, So we can write

(1)  10x+20y\geq 250

(2) Now the above inequality can be solved for y as follows:

10x+20y\geq 250\\\text{Add -10x on both the sides}\\10x+20y-10x\geq 250-10x\\20y\geq 250-10x\\\text{Divide both the sides by 20}\\y\geq 12.5-0.5x\\y\geq -0.5x+12.5

(3)

By the observing the above equation that we just solved for y, we can say that It has an y-intercept of 12.5, and a negative slope of 0.5. Y-intercept of 12.5 means, jake must sell atleast 13 shirts to achieve the target.

8 0
3 years ago
If I have 160 pills and I take 20 a day, how many months will they last​
nalin [4]

Answer:

8 days

Step-by-step explanation:

To find how long they will last, take the number of pills, and divide by the number of pills a day

160/20 = 8

The pills will last 8 days, not even a month

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Add the negatives.<br><br><br><br> +4 - 3 - 4 + 2 - 1<br><br> I just dont get it
vfiekz [6]

Answer: -2

Step-by-step explanation:

since there are no multiplication you can simply go from left to right doing simple math. You start from a +4 that would be a positive 4, you subtract -3 so you get +1 then you subtract -4 and the result is -3 (negative 3) so now you are currently working with numbers lower than 0, adding +2 will make it -1 and finally you subtract for -1 and that will make it -2. Hope it's what u needed

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Fourty mins after 4:40 is fourty mins before…
marissa [1.9K]

Answer:

B.   6:00

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 60 minutes in one hour.

To calculate 40 minutes after 4:40, separate 40 minutes into two lots of 20 minutes.

⇒ 4:40 + 20 minutes = 5:00

⇒ 5:00 + 20 minutes = 5:20

Therefore, 40 minutes after 4:40 is 5:20

To calculate the time that 5:20 is 40 minutes before, add 40 minutes to 5:20

⇒ 5:20 + 40 minutes = 6:00

Therefore, the solution is option B. 6:00

7 0
1 year ago
Read 2 more answers
PLEASE HELPSHSHSJAJSNDMFMMF
Lapatulllka [165]
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3 years ago
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