Philip II conquered Portugal in 1580; Spain maintained Iberian unity from 1580 to 1640.
For an absolute monarch, Philip II has historically retained an excellent reputation among the Spanish people themselves.
Joining the Holy League, the Spanish during Philip's reign inflicted a major defeat on the Turks at Lepanto in October 1571, ending Turkish dominion over the Mediterranean
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The least complex answer is that the quick reason was the death of Franz Ferdinand, the archduke of Austria-Hungary. His passing because of Gavrilo Princip – a Serbian patriot with connections to the undercover military gathering known as the Black Hand – moved the real European military forces towards war.
June 28, 1914: Archduke Franz Ferdinand, beneficiary to the Austrian position of royalty, and his significant other, visit Sarajevo in Bosnia.
July 23: Austria-Hungary, with the sponsorship of Germany, conveys a final offer to Serbia.
July 25: Austria-Hungary cuts discretionary ties with Serbia and starts to activate.
There was much more civil unrest during the 1960s than the 1950s. However, unrest in both decades was caused by the issues of African American rights and grievances. In the 1960s, but not the 1950s, unrest was also caused by the Vietnam War. In the 1950s, there was little civil unrest in the US.
Same thing from the other question I answered.
People began to question the government like the kings and queens of France. This caused Rebellions to form and then the revolution happened
