Answer:
$519,799.59
Explanation:
Discount rate = R = 14.50%
Year Cash flows Discount factor PV of cash flows
1 218,000.00 0.873362 190,393.0131
2 224,000.00 0.762762 170,858.6793
3 238,000.00 0.666168 <u>158,547.9011</u>
Total of PV = NPV = <u> $519,799.59</u>
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Note:
Df = 1/(1+R)^Year
PV of cash flows = Cash flows x Df
The real exchange rate is 1 dollar = 2 Argentine pesos
The exchange rate is an economic term to refer to the relationship between two currencies. The exchange rate establishes the proportion of value that exists between two currencies. For example:
- 1 Dollar is equivalent to 4 Argentine pesos
However, this rate does not represent reality in some places, there may be situations in which the proportions established by the exchange rate are not faithful to reality. For example:
- 3 Dollars or 6 Argentine pesos are used to buy 1 gallon of milk.
In this example, it is evident that in reality, the dollar is not equivalent to 4 Argentine pesos but to 2 due to the proportion of value concerning a product. Therefore, the real exchange rate is 2 Argentine pesos for every American dollar.
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Vaughn's net income for the year 2022 is: c. $88,000.
<h3>Net income</h3>
Using this formula
Net income=Revenues - expenses
Where:
Revenues=$735,000
Expenses=$647,000
Let plug in the formula
Net income=$735,000-$647,000
Net income=$88,000
Therefore the correct option is c.
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Answer:
1. Assets is debited for $10,000 as loans.
2. Liabilities is credited for $10,000 as deposits.
Explanation:
Note: This question is not complete as the amount is omitted. The complete question is therefore presented before answering the question as follows:
Suppose banks keep no excess reserves and that all banks are currently meeting the reserve requirement. The Federal Reserve then makes an open market purchase of $10000 from Bank 1.
Use the T-account below to show the result of this transaction for Bank 1, assuming Bank 1 keeps no excess reserves after the transaction.
The explanation of the answer is now given as follows:
Note: See the attached photo for Bank 1's T-Account.
In the attached photo, we can see that:
1. Assets is debited for $10,000 as loans.
2. Liabilities is credited for $10,000 as deposits.
Answer:
A) 10.15%
Explanation:
Cost of equity (Re) = 14.06% or 0.1406
cost of preferred stock (Rp) = 7/65 = 0.10769
cost of bonds (Rb) = 7.5% or 0.075
outstanding shares = 2.5 million shares x $42 = $105 million
bonds outstanding = $1,000 x 80,000 bonds = $80 million
preferred stock = $65 x 750,000 = $48.75 million
corporate tax rate = 38% or 0.38
total market value of equity + debt (in millions) = $105 + $48.75 + $80 = $233.75
WACC = [(outstanding shares / total market value) x Re] + [(preferred stock / total market value) x Rp] + {[(bonds outstanding / total market value) x Rb] x (1 - tax rate)}
WACC = [($105m / $233.75m) x 0.1406] + [($48.75m / $233.75m) x 0.10769] + {[($80m / $233.75m) x 0.075] x (1 - 0.38)}
WACC = 0.06316 + 0.02246 + 0.01591 = 0.10153 or 10.15%
