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RideAnS [48]
3 years ago
15

Can someone help me please ::))))

English
2 answers:
Amanda [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Historians and scholars are uncertain as to when Shakespeare composed his sonnets; he may have written them over a period of several years, beginning perhaps in 1592 or 1593. Some of the fourteen-line poems were being circulated in manuscript form among the author's acquaintances as early as 1598, and in 1599 two of them—Sonnets 138 and 144—were published in The Passionate Pilgrim, a collection of verses by several authors. The sonnets as modern readers know them were certainly completed no later than 1609, the year they were published in a quarto by Thomas Thorpe under the title Shake-speares Sonnets. While many scholars have expressed the belief that Thorpe acquired the manuscript on which he based his edition from someone other than the author, modern critics generally see little reason to doubt the text's authenticity. On the other hand, few believe that Shakespeare directly supervised the publication of the manuscript, as the text is riddled with errors—and Thorpe, not Shakespeare, authored the dedication. Regardless, Thorpe's 1609 edition is the basis for all modern texts of the sonnets.

Explanation:

laiz [17]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

There is a defining complication in the sonnet. “This centers on the ambiguity of the term “mistress” which could refer to a husband’s wife, or, as the Oxford English Dictionary suggests, could also mean “[a] woman loved and courted by a man; a female sweetheart” or “[a]woman other than his wife with whom a man has a long-lasting sexual relationship” (Gregory, 2).

Explanation:

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3 years ago
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Kipish [7]

the theme of love versus self interest as portrayed by macbeth and lady macbeth Macbeth's love or lack thereof for his wife is what ultimately causes their separation and sends Lady Macbeth to her deathbed.

Because Macbeth's marriage to his wife serves as the poem's example of love. It is a destructive force right now because, in my opinion, Macbeth's love or lack thereof for his wife is what ultimately causes their separation and sends Lady Macbeth to her deathbed.

Prior to Duncan's murder, Macbeth shows compassion and concern for Lady Macbeth; yet, by the play's conclusion, he has changed into a callous dictator who expresses neither regret or sorrow for her passing, despite the fact that he is aware she had turned into an anxious, uneasy infantile wreck. Macbeth and Lady Macbeth are shown as a married couple at the beginning of the play.

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2 years ago
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8_murik_8 [283]

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gladu [14]

Question 1: The idea of racism must be changed.

Question 2: It is necessary for this change to occur so that a nation that has dreams, hopes, and preaches freedom can actually be free, and it won't be a free nation until all of the citizens are released.

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asambeis [7]

Answer:

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Explanation:

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