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N=(1/6)rm
Solve for r
To remove the fraction 1/6, we multiply both side by reciprocal 6/1
6N = rm
Now divide by m on both sides
We solved for r
Your welcome for the help
For 1 play, the chance of gaining $8 is 4/38, while the chance of losing the $1 is 34/38. Therefore, the expected value is ($8)(4/38) + ($-1)(34/38) = $(-1/19). Over 50 plays, which are mutually independent of each other, we multiply the number of plays by the expected value to get $(-50/19) = $-2.63.
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This can be written as...
(1/2)/(1/4) = h/1
Then you solve all of the fractions by multiplying them by 4 to make them intergers;
4(1/2)/4(1/4) = 2/1 = h/1
This means h is equal to 2.
Hope this helps! :)
