Answer:
b. can be calculated by modifying the break-even equation.
Explanation:
As the name implies, target profit can be explained to be the certain amount a business enterprise or a business organisation targets to hit at the end of its sales or at the end of her business dealings.
It can be easily seen in a cash flow planning as it is once modified to approximate cash flow, and also used for revealing expected results to investors and lenders. In all that it is been used for, in the scenario above, it also can be calculated by modifying the break-even equation, and deriving more conservative budgeting packages in business development too.
Adjust the contribution margin per unit and units sold based on an expected sales promotion.
Alter the fixed cost total and the contribution margin per unit for the effects of outsourcing production.
Alter the contribution margin for the effects of changing to a just-in-time production system.
If there is continually a large unfavorable variance between the target and actual profit, it may be necessary to examine the system used to derive the target profit,
<span>The predicted productivity equation is 2.0 + .5 * Experience + .2 * aptitude score . Then we can use the slope coefficients to figure this out. Jack gains .5 *.3 from his extra three months and Jill has gained from her extra 20 points on the aptitude test .2 * 20 = 4 . Then we have that 4 – 1.5 = 2.5 thus Jill is predicted to be more productive than Jack. Thus the answer is b.</span>
Quantity. Amounts and weights must be accurate. ...
Quality. The stated quality must be accurate. ...
Price. The price must be accurate and not misleading. ...
Brand Names. ...
Product Identification. ...
Point of Origin. ...
Merchandising Terms. ...
Means of Preservation.
Answer (A):
Need more data to select the better adviser
<u>Explanation: </u>
Adviser A averaged 19% return on the investment which is more than that of Adviser B who averaged 16% return on investment. However, adviser A has a beta of 1.5 which is also greater than that of Adviser B who has a beta of 1. This means that adviser A made a more riskier investment and hence a higher average return on investment. We need more data to tell which adviser performed better in relation to each other.
Answer (B):
Investment Adviser B
<u>Explanation:</u>
= T-bill rate = 6%
= Market return = 14%
= Market risk premium = 14% - 6% = 8%
= Average Return by Adviser A =19%
= Beta of Adviser A = 1.5
= Average Return by Adviser B =16%
= Beta of Adviser B = 1
CAPM Equation is 
<u>For Adviser A</u>
= 6 + 1.5 (14 - 6) = 18%
The expected average return for the investment is 18% which means that Adviser A over performed the market by 1 %
<u>For Adviser B</u>
= 6 + 1 (14 - 6) = 14%
The expected average return for the investment is 14% which means that the Adviser B over performed the market by 2 %
Clearly, Adviser B performed better than Adviser A.
Answer (C):
Adviser B
<u>Explanation:</u>
<u />
In this part, the 
and 
All else remains the same
We make similar calculation as in part B
Answer:
Check the explanation
Explanation:
Increase in value of dollar has made the foreign steel (a major commodity used in production) cheaper for American producers.
This will reduce the cost of production of American Producers and would increase their profit-margin.
This will induce US firms to produce more and therefore there will be increase in short-run aggregate supply.
So, the given scenario will involve short-run aggregate supply curve and would shift the curve to the right.
Kindly check the attached image below to see the required graph -
