Answer:
Statement # 1: False
Statement # 2: True
Statement # 3: False
Statement # 4: True
Explanation:
Lets look at each statement provided in the question and determine which of them is true or false.
Statement # 1 is false. First things first, the interest on this loan amount is higher which is at 4.15%. This is compared to the interest of 4% applicable on loan option 1. Secondly, there is a four year interest only option. This means that for 4 years there will be no repayments of the principal amount which means that the interest of 4.15% will continue to apply on the entire loan amount for these 4 years. In loan 1 however, principal repayments will reduce the principal amount after the 1st year which would further reduce the interest payment in the second year.
Statement # 2 is true. Loan 2 has an interest only period for the first 4 years. During this year you will only pay the 4.15% interest whereas in loan option 1, you will pay 4% interest AND the principal amount. The effect would offset once principal payments start in loan 2 but it would still mean that payments would be minimized in the first few years.
Statement # 3 is false. One of the advantages of having a loan with an interest free clause is that you can pay it off faster than a conventional loan. Since both the loans are fully amortizing, the principal payments would be different but would both result in the principal being repaid in the full 30 year tenor. Any extra payment that you wish to make would be counted towards principal payment in each loan option. However, for loan 1, the total monthly payments you make would remain the same. For loan 2, the extra payments that you make will continue to lower the monthly payments in way of interest which would allow you to save up more to pay more off in principal. The interest only period will also allow you to arrange extra funds during the IO period and repay the principal further. With loan 1, you will continue to make the same monthly payment until the end.
Statement # 4 is true. A fixed payment is being made each year by way of interest and principal repayments and will remain the same till the loan is fully amortized at maturity. In loan 2 on the other hand, a larger balloon payment will start 4 years later since only interest is paid in the first 4 years. So basically you may lower in the first 4 years and more in the remaining years.
Answer:
c) $3,142.00
Explanation:
The recording of the contingent performance obligation should be recorded at $3,142 which should be equal to the fair value of $16,500 at 5% using the probability-weighted approach
Moreover, at the time of payment, the journal entry is
Contingent performance obligation Dr $3,142
Loss from revaluation of contingent performance obligation $13,358
To Cash A/C $16,500
(Being the cash paid is recorded)
Answer:
The answer is letter A, True.
Explanation:
In order to understand the answer better, let's get to know what a bullwhip effect is in a supply chain.
Supply Chain- this is defined as a network of all the individuals, organizations,resources, technology and activities involved in the creation and sale of a product. This starts from the delivery of the source materials from the supplier to the manufacturer up to the delivery to the end user.
Bullwhip effect- <em>this is considered to be a phenomenon of variability magnification. </em>The view moves from the customer to the producer of the supply chain. Thus, the answer is letter A.
<u>Additional Information</u>
The bullwhip effect occurs when the <em>changes in consumer demands cause the companies to order more goods to meet the new demand.</em> This affects the expectations around it, causing a domino effect along the supply chain.
This effect can be prevented by having a clear communication between suppliers and customers. This will allow suppliers to prevent the occurrence of increase cost that will affect the overall supply chain.
I would think the answer is C.