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Lynna [10]
2 years ago
11

Find the expected value of the winnings from a game that has the following payout probability distribution: Skip Payout ($) 1 2

5 8 10 Probability 0.35 0.2 0.1 0.2 0.15 Expected Value = [?] Round to the nearest hundredth.​
Mathematics
1 answer:
Nezavi [6.7K]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

$4.35

Step-by-step explanation:

The expected value of a random variable <em>X</em>, often denoted as E(<em>X</em>), indicates the probability-weighted average of all possible values/events. The general formula of expected value is

\mathrm{E(\textit X \mathrm)} = \displaystyle\sum_{\mathclap{i=1}}^{k} \ X \times P(X) \\ \\ \\ = X_{1} \times P(X_{1}) \ + \ X_{2} \times P(X_{2}) \ + \ X_{3} \times P(X_{3}) + \ \cdots \ + X_{k} \times P(X_{k}).

Therefore, the expected value of the winnings from a game is

\mathrm{E(\textit X \mathrm)} \ = \ 1 \times 0.35 \ + \ 2 \times 0.2 \ + \ 5 \times 0.1 + \ 8 \times 0.2 \ + 10 \times 0.15 \\ \\ = \ 4.35 \ \ (\mathrm{nearest \ hundredth}).

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The simulation of the medicine and the bowler hat are illustrations of probability

  • The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767
  • The probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0
  • The probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281

<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two</h3>

From the question,

  • Numbers 1 to 7 represents the medicine being effective
  • 0, 8 and 9 represents the medicine not being effective

From the simulation, 23 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on at least two

So, the probability is:

p = 23/30

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Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767

<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on none</h3>

From the simulation, 0 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on none

So, the probability is:

p = 0/30

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Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0

<h3>The probability a bowler hits a headpin</h3>

The probability of hitting a headpin is:

p = 90%

The probability a bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is:

P(x) = nCx * p^x * (1 - p)^(n - x)

So, we have:

P(4) = 5C4 * (90%)^4 * (1 - 90%)^1

P(4) = 0.3281

Hence, the probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281

Read more about probabilities at:

brainly.com/question/25870256

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