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zheka24 [161]
2 years ago
8

An asset was acquired on October 1, 2021, for $78,000 with an estimated five-year life and $13,000 residual value. The company u

ses units-of-production depreciation and expects the asset to produce 20,000 units. Calculate the gain or loss if the asset was sold on March 31, 2024, for $58,000. Actual production was: 2021 = 500 units; 2022 = 3,000 units; 2023 = 3,500 units; 2024 = 1,000 units.
Business
1 answer:
trasher [3.6K]2 years ago
3 0

Based on the information given  the gain or loss if the asset was sold on March 31, 2024 is $6,000 gain.

Depreciation per units= (Original cost - Residual value) ÷ (Estimated production units)

Depreciation per units= ($78,000 - $13,000) ÷ 20,000 units

Depreciation per units= $65,000 ÷ 20,000 units

Depreciation per units= $3.25 per units

Accumulated depreciation=(500 units × $3.25)+( 3,000 units × $3.25)+(3,500 units × $3.25)+( 1,000 units × $3.25)

Accumulated depreciation= $1,625 + $9,750 + $11,375 + $3,250

Accumulated depreciation= $26,000

Book value= Acquired value of an asset - Accumulated depreciation  

Book value= $78,000 - $26,000

Book value= $52,000

Gain or Loss= Sale value - Book value

Gain or Loss= $58,000 - $52,000

Gain or Loss= $6,000 gain

Inconclusion the gain or loss if the asset was sold on March 31, 2024 is $6,000 gain.

Learn more about depreciation here:brainly.com/question/14705084

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mario62 [17]

Answer:

A. Deadweight loss = 125 units.

B. Deadweight loss = 25 units.

Explanation:

In a free market and completely efficient economy, the consumer surplus equals the producer surplus. Both benefits of free trade. When consumers o producers have a minor surplus, necessarily implies a loss on eficiency, usually caused by government regulations like taxes or price ceilings.

The amount of welfare lost is measure by the difference between consumer and producer surplus.

In the first case:

|Consumer surplus - producer surplus| = 25 units

|250- 125| = 125 units

And in the second case:

|180- 155| = 25 units

5 0
3 years ago
Taobao has been placed on the U.S. trade representative offices blacklist of “notorious marketplaces” due to the websites sale o
Gemiola [76]

Answer:

The answer is: letter a, To protect national security.

Explanation:

This incident occurred in <em>2016.</em> Taobao is one of the online shopping websites owned by "Alibaba Group." It was placed on the blacklist by the U.S. because of selling<em> "counterfeit goods."</em> However, it was removed from the blacklist in 2012, since it showed efforts in combating piracy.

One reason for putting Taobao in the blacklist is to protect national security. This is the responsibility of the government to the nation when it feels threatened by anything harmful. The pirated goods were considered a threat to the nation. It can also result to financial loss to the owners due to stolen intellectual properties.

Thus, this explains the answer.

3 0
3 years ago
Chez Dove is an independent coffeehouse/bookstore that went bankrupt only eight months after opening due to an unexpected demand
emmainna [20.7K]

Answer:

Management

Explanation:

Better cash management ensures survival of any firm if well handled and managed.

A Cash Management Strategy includes the use of Banks, Saving & Loan Associations, Credit Unions, and other financial institutions provide a variety of financial services or the use of Account services provide customers with online banking offering deposits, investments, credit cards, loans, mortgages, rewards programs and others.

Effective Cash Management Rules involves: balancing your checkbook regularly and Pay your bills on time

And others.

3 0
3 years ago
The most efficient way to share digital files within a home environment is to set up a(n ____ network.
Mariulka [41]
The most efficient way to share digital files within a home environment is to set up a(n) home network.
6 0
3 years ago
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O'Brien Ltd.'s outstanding bonds have a $1,000 par value, and they mature in 25 years. Their nominal annual, not semiannual yiel
kiruha [24]

Answer:

7.84%

Explanation:

Given:

Bond's par value (FV) = $1,000

Maturity (nper) = 25 × 2 = 50 periods (since it's semi-annual)

YTM (rate) = 0.0925÷2 = 0.04625 semi annually

Price of bond (PV) = $875

Calculate coupon payment (pmt) using spreadsheet function =pmt(rate,nper,-PV,FV)

PV is negative as it's a cash outflow.

So semi- annual coupon payment is $39.20

Annual coupon payment = 39.2×2 = $78.40

Nominal Coupon rate = Annual coupon payment ÷ Par value

                                     = 78.4 ÷ 1000

                                     = 0.0784 or 7.84%

4 0
3 years ago
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