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guapka [62]
3 years ago
11

Robin’s scores: 99, 108, 102, 107, 119 Mean = 107; MAD = 5. 2 Evelyn’s scores: 125, 137, 138, 145, 145 Mean = 138; MAD = 5.

6 Explain what the mean absolute deviation is in general. Explain what the MAD means in the context of Robin and Evelyn’s data.
Mathematics
1 answer:
stiks02 [169]3 years ago
5 0

The mean absolute deviation (MAD), refers to the mean of the data's absolute deviations around the data's mean.

The MAD implies that Evelyn scores are more spread out than Robin scores.

The given parameters:

  • <em>Robin scores = 99, 108, 102, 107 119</em>
  • <em>Mean of Robin score, = 107</em>
  • <em>Mean absolute deviation = 5.2</em>
  • <em>Evelyn scores = 125, 137, 138, 145</em>
  • <em>Mean of Evelyn score = 5.6</em>

The mean absolute deviation (MAD), refers to the mean of the data's absolute deviations around the data's mean. It implies the absolute distance from the mean of the data set.

The absolute distance of Evelyn scores from her mean score is greater than the absolute distance of Robin scores from his mean score.

Thus, we can conclude that Evelyn scores are more spread out than Robin scores.

Learn more about mean absolute deviation here: brainly.com/question/17381861

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seropon [69]

Answer:

The unexplained variance would be 100-90.25 % = 9.75. And that correspond to the percentage of the dependent variable in the correlation is due purely to chance

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

Pearson correlation coefficient(r), "measures a linear dependence between two variables (x and y). Its a parametric correlation test because it depends to the distribution of the data. And other assumption is that the variables x and y needs to follow a normal distribution".

In order to calculate the correlation coefficient we can use this formula:  

r=\frac{n(\sum xy)-(\sum x)(\sum y)}{\sqrt{[n\sum x^2 -(\sum x)^2][n\sum y^2 -(\sum y)^2]}}  

On this case we got that r =-0.95

In order to find the % of variance explained by the model we need to calculate the determination coefficient given by:

R^2 = (-0.95)^2 = 0.9025

And that means this : "90.25% of the variation of y is explained by the variation in x"

So then the unexplained variance would be 100-90.25 % = 9.75. And that correspond to the percentage of the dependent variable in the correlation is due purely to chance

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4 years ago
I need help finishing a question. I used the explanation function on the program, but it didn't specify what to do to get the fi
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I would compute sqrt(1 + 160pi^2) first to get approximately 39.75093337

Add this to 1 and we have 40.75093337

Then divide over 2pi to get a final approximate result of 6.48571248

So x = 6.48571248 is one approximate solution

In short, I computed \frac{1+\sqrt{1+160\pi^2}}{2\pi} only focusing on the plus for now.

----------------------

If you were to compute \frac{1-\sqrt{1+160\pi^2}}{2\pi} you should get roughly -6.167402596 as your other solution. Each solution can then be plugged into the original equation to check if you get 0 or not. You likely won't land exactly on 0 but you'll get close enough.

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Answer:

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Answer:

The equation of the line is y = -1

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to find the equation,y = mx + c, you have to find the gradient first using the formula :

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Let (x1,y1) = (-8,-1) & (x2,y2) = (-8,-1),

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