Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
A
Step-by-step explanation:
Given that,
a)
X ~ Bernoulli
and Y ~ Bernoulli 
X + Y = Z
The possible value for Z are Z = 0 when X = 0 and Y = 0
and Z = 1 when X = 0 and Y = 1 or when X = 1 and Y = 0
If X and Y can not be both equal to 1 , then the probability mass function of the random variable Z takes on the value of 0 for any value of Z other than 0 and 1,
Therefore Z is a Bernoulli random variable
b)
If X and Y can not be both equal to 1
then,
or 
and 

c)
If both X = 1 and Y = 1 then Z = 2
The possible values of the random variable Z are 0, 1 and 2.
since a Bernoulli variable should be take on only values 0 and 1 the random variable Z does not have Bernoulli distribution
Answer:
j
Step-by-step explanation:
Substitute the given values into x² + x + 1 and check if result is prime
x = - 4
(- 4)² - 4 + 1 = 16 - 4 + 1 = 13 ← prime
(- 2)² - 2 + 1 = 4 - 2 + 1 = 3 ← prime
(- 3)² - 3 + 1 = 9 - 3 + 1 = 7 ← prime
4² + 4 + 1 = 16 + 4 + 1 = 21 ← not prime
x = 4 serves as a counterexample to disprove this conclusion
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
