The eco-nomy was in long-run equilibrium when aggre-gate demand increased. At this point in time, the expec-ted inflation has start-ed to adjust to the new high-er actual inflation rate. Accor-ding to the (Friedman) natural rate the-ory, this means the unemploy-ment rate in the economy must curr-ently be <u><em>below the natu-ral rate</em></u>.
Milton Friedman defi-ned the natural rate of unemploy-ment as the level of unemployment that result-ed from real economic forces, the long-run level of whi-ch could not be altered by monet-ary policy. Accor-ding to the general equili-brium model of economics, natural unemploy-ment is equal to the level of unemploy-ment of a labor mark-et at perfect equilibrium.
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Answer:
A) Higher income taxes will cause a decrease in disposable income and this will affect personal expenditure which will cause the aggregate demand curve to shift leftwards ( decrease in price level and real GDP )
B)
i) Change in input price
ii) Change in production cost
iii) Increase in labor supply or increase in capital stocks
Explanation:
A) Effects of higher income taxes on aggregate demand curve
i) Higher income taxes will cause a decrease in disposable income and this will affect personal expenditure which will cause the aggregate demand curve to shift leftwards ( decrease in price level and real GDP )
B) The factors that will cause the short-run aggregate supply curve to shift
a) Change in input price
b) Change in production cost
c) Increase in labor supply or increase in capital stocks
If that happen, other investors that bet for the opposite cause of your investment would be the one that gained that money, and you will still able to keep that stocks to collect dividend as long as you don't sell it.
(this circumtances won't happen if the reason you lost the money is the firm going into bankruptcy)
Answer:
$2,500,000
Explanation:
Break Point = Level of debt / Weight of debt
(100%-40%)
=60%
Hence:
= 1,500,000 / 60%
= $2,500,000
Therefore the debt breakpoint in the MCC schedule will be $2,500,000
Answer and Explanation:
The computation is shown below;
1. The willing amount to pay for the promise should be less than $20 that represents the time value of money
2. Now the present value is
= Received amount × discounting factor at 6% for 3 years
= $1,000 × 0.839
= $839
3. Now the interest rate is
As we know that
Future value = Present value × (1 + rate of interest)^number of years
$1,000 = $863.84 × (1 + rate of interest)^3
rate of interest =5% approx
