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Ivanshal [37]
2 years ago
15

Is it always true that (x+4) squared equals x squared plus 16?

Mathematics
2 answers:
galben [10]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

True

Step-by-step explanation:

(x + 4)² = (x + 4) (x + 4)

x² + 4² = x² + 16

mote1985 [20]2 years ago
6 0

Hello.

No, (x+4)² doesn't equal x²+16.

Let's see why.

Remember that

x times x = x²

4 times 4 = 4²=16

So it seems like (x+4)² is equal to x²+16.

However,

(x+4)²≠x²+16.

Well, what IS that equal to?

Turns out that

(x+4)² is equal to x² + twice the product of x and 4 +16 (!)

(x+4)²=x²+2*4*x+4²

(x+4)²=x²+8x+16

Therefore, (x+4)²=x²+8x+16.

I hope it helps.

Have an outstanding day. :)

\boxed{imperturbability}

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Which of the following represents the zeros of f(x) = x3 − 11x2 + 38x − 40?
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</span>
Among all choices we have 5, so
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Let's divide the expression by (x - 5) using the long division:
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(x - 5)  * x² =      x³ - 5x²                   Subtract
____________________________
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                    (x - 5) * 8 =     8x - 40   Sutract
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Thus: x³ - 11x² + 38x - 40 = (x - 5)(x² - 6x + 8)

Now, let's simplify x² - 6x + 8.

x² - 6x + 8 = x² - 2x - 4x + 8 =
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x³ - 11x² + 38x - 40 = 0
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x = 5                 or              x = 4                   or      x = 2
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