First you have to make the assumption that these are the only two outcomes. There is also the possibility of hitting the ball and getting out.
However, if we assume that these are the only two cases, we know that the probability is 58.3%. This is because it has been on base 7 times out of 12.
Answer:
The magnetic field is
Direction is inward
Step-by-step explanation:
The diagram for this question is shown on the first uploaded image
From the question we are told that
The radius of BC is 
The radius of DA is 
The length of CD is 
The length of AB is 
The current is 
The magnetic field is mathematically represented as

![B = \frac{\mu_o I}{4 \pi } [ \frac{\theta_{DA}}{r_{DA}} + \frac{\theta_{BC}}{r_{BC}}+ \frac{\theta_{CD}}{r_{CD}}+\frac{\theta_{AB}}{r_{AB}}]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=B%20%3D%20%20%5Cfrac%7B%5Cmu_o%20I%7D%7B4%20%5Cpi%20%7D%20%5B%20%5Cfrac%7B%5Ctheta_%7BDA%7D%7D%7Br_%7BDA%7D%7D%20%2B%20%5Cfrac%7B%5Ctheta_%7BBC%7D%7D%7Br_%7BBC%7D%7D%2B%20%5Cfrac%7B%5Ctheta_%7BCD%7D%7D%7Br_%7BCD%7D%7D%2B%5Cfrac%7B%5Ctheta_%7BAB%7D%7D%7Br_%7BAB%7D%7D%5D)
Where

Where 

so
![B = \frac{\mu_o I}{4 \pi } [ \frac{\frac{2\pi}{3} }{0.20} - \frac{\frac{2\pi}{3}}{0.30}}+ \frac{0}{0.10}+\frac{0}{0.10}]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=B%20%3D%20%20%5Cfrac%7B%5Cmu_o%20I%7D%7B4%20%5Cpi%20%7D%20%5B%20%5Cfrac%7B%5Cfrac%7B2%5Cpi%7D%7B3%7D%20%7D%7B0.20%7D%20-%20%5Cfrac%7B%5Cfrac%7B2%5Cpi%7D%7B3%7D%7D%7B0.30%7D%7D%2B%20%5Cfrac%7B0%7D%7B0.10%7D%2B%5Cfrac%7B0%7D%7B0.10%7D%5D)

The direction is into the page
This because the magnitude of the magnetic field due to arc BC whose direction is outward is less than that of DA whose direction is inward
This is because according to Fleming's Left Hand Rule the direction of current is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field so since current in arc BC and DA are moving in opposite direction their magnetic field will also be moving in opposite direction
6 + 9y - 18 = -3 Combine like terms (6 and -18)
9y - 12 = -3 Add 12 to both sides
9y = 9 Divide both sides by 9
y = 1
One possible system is
1x + 3y = 4
2x + 6y = 8
Note how 2 is twice as large as 1, 6 is twice as large as 3, and 8 is twice as large as 4.
In other words, the second equation is the result of multiplying both sides of the first equation by 2.
1x+3y = 4
2*(1x+3y) = 2*4
2x+6y = 8
Effectively the two equations in bold are the same which produces the same line. The two lines overlap perfectly to intersect infinitely many times. An intersection is a solution.
THIS IS THE COMPLETE QUESTION BELOW
The demand equation for a product is p=90000/400+3x where p is the price (in dollars) and x is the number of units (in thousands). Find the average price p on the interval 40 ≤ x ≤ 50.
Answer
$168.27
Step by step Explanation
Given p=90000/400+3x
With the limits of 40 to 50
Then we need the integral in the form below to find the average price
1/(g-d)∫ⁿₐf(x)dx
Where n= 40 and a= 50, then if we substitute p and the limits then we integrate
1/(50-40)∫⁵⁰₄₀(90000/400+3x)
1/10∫⁵⁰₄₀(90000/400+3x)
If we perform some factorization we have
90000/(10)(3)∫3dx/(400+3x)
3000[ln400+3x]₄₀⁵⁰
Then let substitute the upper and lower limits we have
3000[ln400+3(50)]-ln[400+3(40]
30000[ln550-ln520]
3000[6.3099×6.254]
3000[0.056]
=168.27
the average price p on the interval 40 ≤ x ≤ 50 is
=$168.27