Answer: 
Step-by-step explanation:
Given : The probability of a correct classification of any part is : p=0.96
sample size : n= 3
The formula to find the mean and variance for binomial distribution is given by :-

Let the random variable X denote the number of parts that are correctly classified.
The, for the given situation, we have

Hence, the mean and variance of X are 2.88 and 0.115 respectively.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
1. y = 2x
y = 2*4 = 8 Checks, therefore
y = 20 for x = 10
2. y = 3x
y = 3*(0.3) = 0.9 Checks, therefore:
y = 3*(1.5) = 4.5
y = 3*
3. y = 5/x
y = 5/(1/2) = 10 Checks, therefore:
3 = 5/x
x = 5/3
4 v = wu
7*3 = 21 Checks, therefore:
v = (3/4)*(6) = (18/4) = (9/2)
v = (2/3)wu
v = (2/3)*7*3 = 14 Checks
5 m = Kn/p [Add the K as a constant that will make m = Knp true at some value of K]
9 = K*2/(1/3)
27 = (K*2)
27 = 2K
K = (3/2)
m = (3/2) (n/p)
m = (3/2)*((1/2)/(1/3))
m = (3/2)*(3/2)
m = 1
Point slope form will give you the point
y - y1 = m(x- x1)
when the equation says -, the number is positive. when the equation says +, the number is negative
in this case the point is (-6,5)
<span>There are two approaches to translate this inquiry, to be specific:
You need to know a number which can go about as the ideal square root and also the ideal block root.
You need to know a number which is an ideal square and in addition an ideal 3D shape of a whole number.
In the primary case, the arrangement is straightforward. Any non-negative whole number is an ideal square root and in addition a flawless solid shape foundation of a bigger number.
A non-negative whole number, say 0, is the ideal square foundation of 0 and additionally an immaculate shape base of 0. This remains constant for all non-negative numbers starting from 0 i.e. 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9
In the second case as well, the arrangement is straightforward however it involves a more legitimate approach than the primary choice.
A flawless square is a number which contains prime variables having powers which are a different of 2. So also, a flawless block is a number which includes prime variables having powers which are a numerous of 3.
Any number which includes prime components having powers which are a various of 6 will be the answer for your inquiry; a case of which would be 64 which is the ideal square of 8 and an ideal 3D shape of 4. For this situation, the number 64 can be spoken to as prime variables (i.e. 2^6) having powers (i.e. 6) which are a different of 6.</span>
Using the Poisson distribution, the probabilities are given as follows:
A. 0.0888 = 8.88%.
B. 0.1354 = 13.54%.
C. 0.8646 = 86.46%.
<h3>What is the Poisson distribution?</h3>
In a Poisson distribution, the probability that X represents the number of successes of a random variable is given by:

The parameters are:
- x is the number of successes
- e = 2.71828 is the Euler number
is the mean in the given interval.
Item a:
10 hours, 2 calls per hour, hence the mean is given by:
.
The probability is P(X = 20), hence:


Item b:
1 hour, hence the mean is given by:

The probability is P(X = 0), hence:


Item c:
The probability is:

More can be learned about the Poisson distribution at brainly.com/question/13971530
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