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lesantik [10]
3 years ago
12

HELP NEEDED ASAP!!!!!!!!!!

Mathematics
1 answer:
Andre45 [30]3 years ago
3 0
To best solve this question, simply write all of the fractions using a same common denominator of 100, for instance.

A = 40/100
B = 4/100
C = 29/100
D = 27/100

Now compare the top numbers and see which is the biggest one and the smallest one, and find the biggest one to the right of the answer choices and the smallest one to the very left of the choices.

That is the solution.

It is the first choice.







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the average life span of a lion is one year more than twice the life span of a fox , which is seven years Let i represent the li
Snezhnost [94]
The lift spam is 15 years if you are looking for an equation its is 2f+1=i
8 0
4 years ago
Each day, Robin commutes to work by bike with probability 0.4 and by walking with probability 0.6. When biking to work injuries
kvasek [131]

Answer:

64.65% probability of at least one injury commuting to work in the next 20 years

Step-by-step explanation:

In a Poisson distribution, the probability that X represents the number of successes of a random variable is given by the following formula:

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}


In which

x is the number of sucesses

e = 2.71828 is the Euler number

\mu is the mean in the given interval.

Each day:

Bikes to work with probability 0.4.

If he bikes to work, 0.1 injuries per year.

Walks to work with probability 0.6.

If he walks to work, 0.02 injuries per year.

20 years.

So

\mu = 20*(0.4*0.1 + 0.6*0.02) = 1.04

Either he suffers no injuries, or he suffer at least one injury. The sum of the probabilities of these events is decimal 1. So

P(X = 0) + P(X \geq 1) = 1

We want P(X \geq 1). Then

P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)

In which

P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}


P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-1.04}*1.04^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.3535


P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.3535 = 0.6465

64.65% probability of at least one injury commuting to work in the next 20 years

3 0
3 years ago
-
TEA [102]

Answer:

0.25. or 1/4

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that the first coin will be heads is 0.5. The probability that the second coin will be heads is 0.5. So the probability that the first two coins will be heads is 0.5 * 0.5 = 0.25.

Since the third flip can be either heads or tails, this has a probability of 1.0.

So the probability you want is 0.25 * 1.0 = 0.25.    (or if you want a fraction it is 1/4)

3 0
4 years ago
Can I please get help with number 4 and 5
meriva
For number five he descended -47
7 0
3 years ago
Find the circumference of the the radius is 6. A. 18.84cm B. 37.68cm C. 75.36cm.<br> D. 113.04cm
lisabon 2012 [21]

radius, r = 6cm

circumference, c = 2 pi × r

pi = 3.14

c = 2 x 3.14 x 6 = 37.68cm

3 0
4 years ago
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