The answer is 31/40
because first you got cane both of the fraction to the same denominator.
72/80 + 70/80
Add 72+70=142.
142/80 change it to an mixed number and it will be 1 31/40 in simplest form.
Answer:
25 days
Step-by-step explanation:
12 times 2 = 24
6/9 = 2/3 which is just larger than 1/2
The point of inflection is calculated by equating the second derivative to zero and determining x from there.
f"(x) = -x²2xsinx² + cosx²(2x) = 0
2xcosx² - 2x³sinx² = 0
2x (cosx² - xsinx²) = 0
2x = 0 ⇒ x = 0
cosx² - xsinx² = 0 ⇒ x = 3.82 (if you use shift+solve in your scientific calculator)
Thus, the function only has 1 point of inflection and it is at x = 0.
Answer:
I'm only able to see a black square instead of any image. Could you resend it?