9514 1404 393
Answer:
- 3 big bucks
- 6 little bucks
- 17 does
Step-by-step explanation:
Let B, L, D represent the numbers of big bucks, little bucks, and does, respectively.
B + L + D = 26 . . . . . . total bagged
D = 5 + 2L . . . . . . . . . 5 more does than twice the number of little bucks
B = L/2 . . . . . . . . . . . . half as many big bucks as little bucks
__
We can substitute for B and D in the first equation:
L/2 + L + (5 +2L) = 26
7/2L = 21 . . . . . . . . . . . . . subtract 5, collect terms
L = 6 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . multiply by 2/7
D = 5 + 2·6 = 17
B = 6/2 = 3
The party bagged 3 big bucks, 6 little bucks and 17 does.
Answer:
Lateral Area = Area of 2 triangle + Area of slant rectangle + area of back rectangle
Lateral Area = (5m)(3m) + (6m) (36m) + (3m) (36m)
LA = 15m² + 216m² + 108m²
LA = 339 m²
SA = (5m)(3m) + (6m) (36m) + (3m) (36m) + (5m)(36m)
SA = 15m² + 216m² + 108m² + 180 m²
SA = 519 m²
Remember that the slope intercept formula is:
y = mx + b
m is the slope
b is the y-intercept
so...
m = 0
b = -2
^^^Plug these numbers into formula
y = 0*x - 2
y = 0 - 2
y = -2
Hope this helped!
~Just a girl in love with Shawn Mendes
Answer:
The correct answer is A) 4/663.
Step-by-step explanation:
First you find the probability of drawing a queen when drawing a single card from a deck of 52 cards. Since there are 4 queens(the queen of diamond, the queen of hearts, the queen of spades, and the queen of clubs) in a deck of 52 cards, the probability of drawing a queen when drawing a single card from a deck of 52 cards is 4/52.
Next you find the probability of drawing a king when drawing a single card from a deck of 51 cards(since you did not replace the first card you drew). Since there are 4 kings(the king of diamond, the king of hearts, the king of spades, and the king of clubs) in a deck of cards, the probability of drawing a king when drawing a single card from a deck of 51 cards is 4/51.
Then you multiply the two probabilities to determine the probability of drawing a queen then a king. So,
4/52 x 4/51 =
4 x 4/52 x 51 =
16/2652
Finally, simplify the fraction. The greatest number that can go into both the numerator and denominator is 4. So divide both the numerator and denominator by 4. When you do this, you get the following:
16 divided by 4 = 4 as the numerator and
2652 divided by 4 = 663 as denominator.
So, the final answer is 4/663.
