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andreev551 [17]
3 years ago
7

Keene, Inc. produces flash drives for computers, which it sells for $20 each. Each flash drive costs $6 of variable costs to mak

e. During March, 1,000 drives were sold. Fixed costs for March were $5.60 per unit for a total of $5,600 for the month. If variable costs decrease by 10%, what happens to the break-even level of units per month for Keene?
Business
1 answer:
kodGreya [7K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The break even level of units per month fall by 16 units.

Explanation:

The current breakeven units per month are,

Break even in units = 5600 / (20 - 6)  

Break even in units-March = 400 Units

The fixed costs remain constant in the short run to a certain activity level so assuming that the fixed costs will remain $5600.

The new variable costs will be 6 * 0.9 = $5.4

Assuming everything else remains constant,

The new break even in units per month = 5600 / (20 - 5.4)

New break even in units = 383.56 rounded off to 384 units

As a result of decrease in the variable cost per units, the new break even point becomes 16 units less than the previous one.

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On January 3, 2014, Trusty Delivery Service purchased a truck at a cost of $90,000. Before placing the truck in service, Trusty
likoan [24]

Answer:

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 - 5 under:

  • the Straight-line method is $90,000.
  • the Units-of-production method is $90,000.
  • the Double-declining-balance method is $86,170.

Explanation:

The total cost of the asset is $90,000 + $3,000 + $1,500 + $4,500 = $99,000, since all the other costs were directly attributable cost and were necessary to bring the asset to usable form.

  • The painting is capitalized because it is the first time Trust Delivery would be using the asset, otherwise it would have been expended
  • Overhauling cost can be regarded as a separate asset, if we were provided with different useful lives - componentization.

Under straight-line method, depreciation expense is (cost - residual value) / No of years = ($99,000 - $9,000) / 5 years = $18,000 yearly depreciation expense.

Accumulated depreciation for Years 1 to 5 is $18,000 x 5 years $90,000.

The unit-of-production method is used when the asset value closely relates to the units of output it is able to produce. It is expressed with the formula below:

(Original Cost - Salvage value) / Estimated production capacity x Units/year

At Year 1, depreciation expense (DE) is: ($99,000 - $9,000) / 100,000 miles x 22,500 miles = $20,250/year

Accumulated depreciation for the first four years is $20,250 x 4 years = $81,000.

At Year 5, depreciation = $90,000 / 100,000 miles x 10,000 miles = $9,000

Note that this depreciation method results in higher depreciation charge when the asset is heavily used, at this time, it was in Years 1 - 4.

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 5, under this method, is $90,000 (addition of first four years and the Year 5).

The double-declining method is otherwise known as the reducing balance method and is given by the formula below:

Double declining method = 2 X SLDP X BV

SLDP = straight-line depreciation percentage

BV = Book value

SLDP is 100%/5years = 20%, then 20% multiplied by 2 to give 40%

At Year 1, 40% X $99,000 = $39,600

At Year 2, 40% X $59,400 ($99,000 - $39,600) = $23,760

At Year 3, 40% X $35,640 ($59,400 - $23,760) = $14,256

At Year 4, 40% X $21,384 ($35,640 - $14,256) = $8,554 approximately (the depreciation expense would stop at this stage since the amount falls below the residual value).

Accumulated depreciation expense for Years 1 to 4, under this method, is $86,170 (addition of all the yearly depreciation).

7 0
3 years ago
At the end of its first year of operations, Eagle Manufacturing has a deductible temporary difference of $100,000. Eagle has inc
Sunny_sXe [5.5K]

Complete question:

At the end of its first year of operations, Eagle Manufacturing has a deductible temporary difference of $100,000. Eagle has income taxes payable of $90,000 due to a tax rate of 20%. Eagle also recorded a deferred tax asset. Later, they determined that it is more likely than not that $15,000 of the deferred tax asset will not be realized. What entry should Eagle make to record the reduction in asset value?

A. Allowance to Reduce Deferred

Tax Asset to Expected Realizable

Value 15,000

Income Tax Expense 15,000

B. Income Tax Expense 15,000

Deferred Tax Asset 15,000

C. Income Taxes Payable 15,000

Income Tax Expense 15,000

D. Income Tax Expense 15,000

Allowance to Reduce Deferred

Tax Asset to Expected Realizable

Value 15,000

Answer:

Income Tax Expense = 15,000

Allowance to Reduce Deferred

Tax Asset to Expected Realizable

Value 15,000

Explanation:

A book value decrease decreases the valuation of the book asset when changes in the asset or the dynamics of the market have decreased its present market value.

Reduction of book value is a non-cash charge listed as an expense, which decreases net profit.

In this case , Option D entry should Eagle make to record the reduction in asset value

i.e,  Income Tax Expense                                        15,000

                     Allowance to Reduce Deferred

                     Tax Asset to Expected Realisable

        Value                                                                  15,000

3 0
3 years ago
Suppose that there are two independent economic factors, F1 and F2. The risk-free rate is 3%, and all stocks have independent fi
yarga [219]

Answer:

Rp = 3% + BP1 * 10.42% + BP2 * 6.1%

Explanation:

Portfolio A:

R_p = R_f + Beta1*Factor1 + Beta2*Factor2

32% = 3% + 1.6*F1 + 2*F2

Portfolio B

29% = 3% + 2.6*F1 - 0.2*F2

Solvig the equatios

3% = -F1 + 2.2*F2

F1 = 2.2F2 - 3%

F1 = 2.2F2 - 0.03

Substituting

29% = 3% + 2.6*(2.2F2 - 0.03) - 0.2F2

29% = 3% + 5.72F2 - 0.078 - 0.2F2

5.52F2 = 29% - 3% +0.078

5.52F2 = 0.26 +0.078

5.52F2= 0.338

F2 = 0.338/5.52 = 0.061

F1 = 2.2F2 - 0.03 = 2.2(0.061) - 0.03

    = 0.1042

The return Beta relationship in this economy  Rp = 3% + BP1 * 10.42% + BP2 * 6.1%

3 0
3 years ago
Haynes Automotive uses labor-hours as its base for calculating a predetermined overhead rate. Haynes had estimated the labor-hou
julia-pushkina [17]

Based on the information given the predetermined overhead rate is 31.89 per direct labor hour.

<h3>Predetermined overhead rate</h3>

Using this formula

Predetermined Overhead rate = Estimated manufacturing overhead / Estimated total labor hours

Let plug in the formula

Predetermined Overhead rate = [$1,026,260 + (46,000×6.25)] / 41,200

Predetermined Overhead rate =1,313,760/ 41,200

Predetermined Overhead rate = 31.89 per direct labor hour

Inconclusion the predetermined overhead rate is 31.89 per direct labor hour.

Learn more about predetermined overhead rate here:brainly.com/question/26372929

3 0
2 years ago
ndicate the proper IFRS presentation: Select one: a. Listing noncurrent assets before current assets, and listing Retained Earni
tatuchka [14]

Answer:

The proper IFRS presentation is:

d. Listing current assets before noncurrent assets, and listing Current Liabilities before Retained Earnings

Explanation:

The above listing is in the order of liquidity, especially of current assets and noncurrent assets.  This listing shows all the current assets before the noncurrent assets with Cash, Accounts Receivable, etc following that order for the listing of current assets.  And the more permanent assets are listed last.  Similarly, for the Liabilities and Equity side, the Current Liabilities are listed first before the Noncurrent Liabilities followed by Equity (Share Capital and Retained Earnings) in that order.

4 0
3 years ago
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