The third one is most appropriate ! as it shows that the money can be stored and later we can use !
Answer:
The answer is D
Explanation:
Depreciation is best described as An estimate of how much of a tangible asset has been used during an accounting period: considered an expense that does not require any cash outflow under the accrual basis accounting.
Depreciation reduces the value of an asset and it reduces it over the life span of an asset. Depreciation is a non cash reduction. Depreciation tells us how much the value of an asset has reduced.
The formula is (cost of the asset - any residual value) ÷ the number of useful life span
Answer:
A) True
Explanation:
The Homestead strike was a combination of both a company lockout (the company didn't allow workers to work) and a union strike (where the workers did't want to work). It was a power struggle between one of the darkest and sinister monopolists of the 19th century, Carnegie Steel (led by Andrew Carnegie) and the most powerful workers' union in America, the Amalgamated Association of Iron and Steel Workers.
In 1889 the union won, but Carnegie wanted revenge, so in 1892, he demanded harsher conditions after the initial contract was over and when the union said no, a lockout started. It was bloody and messy, with 16 dead. Carnegie's private army of 300 guards faced 10,000 strikers and things turned ugly soon. The Pinkertons (Carnegie's troops) were "defeated" but too many lives were lost.
Since Carnegie's little was defeated, he asked a bigger fish to help him and the governor sent 8,000 soldiers to arrest any union striker that opposed Carnegie. Finally, Carnegie's millions and corrupt politicians won, and the workers were forced to accept lower wages and more working hours. Those who rejected the forced deal were sent to prison.
Answer:
PV= $62,158.4
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Annual payment= $6,400
Number of periods= 15 years
Interest rate= 6% = 0.06
<u>First, we need to calculate the future value using the following formula:</u>
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual payment
FV= {6,400*[(1.06^15) - 1]} / 0.06
FV= $148,966.21
<u>Now, the present value:</u>
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 148,966.21 / (1.06^15)
PV= $62,158.4
