Answer:
Budgeted total revenue = $424,000
Explanation:
<em>The revenue budget shows the expected amount sales income projected for the next coming accounting period for a business. It contains data about the expected ales volume for different products, their prices and the estimated sales revenue.</em>
Product Price Quantity Revenue
Ounce 0.40 460,000 184,000
Bottles 1.20 200,000 <u>240,000
</u>
Total revenue <u>424,000
</u>
Budgeted total revenue = $424,000
Answer:
10,064 bonds
Explanation:
Given:
Amount to be raised = $2,800,000
Par value (FV) = $1,000
Maturity (nper) = 20×2 = 40 periods
Yield (rate) = 6.49 ÷ 2 = 3.245% or 0.03245
Coupon payment is 0 as it's a zero coupon bond.
Assume it's compounded semi-annually.
Calculate the price of the bond today using spreadsheet function =PV(rate,nper,pmt,FV)
Price of bond is $278.23
PV is negative as it's a cash outflow.
Number of bonds to be sold = Total amount to be raised ÷ Price of bond
= 2,800,000 ÷ 278.23
= 10,064 bonds
Company should sell 10,064 bonds to raise $2.8 million
Answer: the tariffs will vary depending on the classification.
Explanation:
Tariff is a form of tax that is usually imposed on the imports that are brought from other countries to a particular country.
With regards to information provided in the question, the classification of goods is significant because the tariffs will vary depending on the classification.
<span>It
is an example of the primacy effect. Primacy effect is one of the two main
components of a broader concept known as the serial position effect. The serial position
effect says that when given a list of information and later asked to recall
that information, the items at the beginning (primacy) and the items at the end
(recency) are more likely to be recalled than the items in the middle.</span>
Answer:
A. True
Explanation:
Examples of situations that individually or in combination would normally lead to a lease being classified as a finance lease are:
(a) the lease transfers ownership of the underlying asset to the lessee by the end of the lease term;
(b) the lessee has the option to purchase the underlying asset at a price that is expected to be sufficiently lower than the fair value at the date the option becomes exercisable for it to be reasonably certain, at the inception date, that the option will be exercised;
(c) the lease term is for the major part of the economic life of the underlying asset even if title is not transferred;
(d) at the inception date, the present value of the lease payments amounts to at least substantially all of the fair value of the underlying asset; and
(e) the underlying asset is of such a specialised nature that only the lessee can use it without major modifications.
Since at the time of lease the net present value of the payments is 88% of the actual market price and the useful life of the asset was 70% at the end of the lease term and also the title of asset shall not be transferred to lessee at the end of lease term, therefore the lease shall not be classify as finance lease and it shall be classified as operating lease so the answer is A. True
