Men's earnings are largely viewed as supplemental to women's. D would be the correct option.
<h3>What is gender pay gap?</h3>
It is the deliberate reduction in the pay of women as opposed to men in the same job position.
The gender pay gap is justified by a couple of arguments. These include:
- Women being employed in lower-paying jobs as opposed to men.
- Women sacrificing career growth in favor of raising children.
- Women asking for lesser payment during the selection phase
Thus, the earnings of men being viewed as supplemental to women's is not one of the arguments used in justifying the gender pay gap.
More on gender pay gap can be found here: brainly.com/question/14511610
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a) women are disproportionately employed in lower-paying, lower-status occupations
b) Women leave the labor market to care for children and elderly parents and then re-enter it
c) women underestimate their worth to employers and ask for less than their male counterparts
d) Men's earnings are largely viewed as supplemental to women's
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Answer:
It's wrong.
Explanation:
In the Punnett square, we will use F to represent the dominant freckles gene and f to represent the recessive lack-of-freckles gene. The first individual would have FF, because homozygous means that both alleles are the same. The second individual would have Ff, because heterozygous means that it has 2 different alleles. If the first individual passes down one of its "F" alleles and the second individual passes down its "F" allele, the offspring would have 2 dominant alleles, and the researcher's conclusion is disproven.
