Very complicated problem, but thank goodness I have too much time and am a nerd.
Basically model 1st account as so.
Fv=pv(1+I)^N
Fv future value
Pv present value
I interest
N number years
So first equation is interest earned after 3 years
Y=5000(1+0.023)^3
Y=5353 (rounded up)
So we know that the interest earned is 5353-5000 which is 353.
Now Ronisha (clearly the name of a future investment genius) invests these 353$ in a new account.
Now remember we’re not solving for FV we’re cause we’re given that: 55.2$
However this is the interest earned not the future value. So if interest earned is fv - pv and we know pv
Fv - 353 = 55.2
Fv = 408.2$
So now we reuse the formula
408.2 = 353(1+0.032)^x
Now just solve for x:
First divide both sides by 353
1.156 = 1.032^x
Remember the log rule that states x=b^y is same as y=logb(x)
So using the same logic:
X= log1.032(1.156)
Use some kind of calculator for that where you can adjust log base. But you basically get:
X= 4.602
So Ronisha has to basically invest 5 years or 4.6 years which is 4 years and 7 months.
Omg nevermind, wait it’s simple interest….
Sorry here’s the simple solution. My bad, but I worked so hard on the top part I don’t want to delete it.
I=prt
Interest = principal * rate * time
I= 5000(0.023)(3)=345
Then just do the same but plug 55.2 for I
55.2 = 345(0.032)t
Now solve for t
55.2 = 11.04t
t= 5
As you can see, similar logic where ultimately it takes 5 years. But this “genius” Ronisha should’ve just done compounding interest (my first calculation) and gotten it done in 4.6 years. Almost 5 months faster.
I think 12. I'm not sure though. The way I came up with that answer is the tree diagram. I used the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, . Then I did the tree diagram method.
There's one unforgivable taboo that transcends just about every branch of mathematics, and that's dividing by zero. Division by zero is undefined, so any fraction with a zero in its denominator is by definition absurd. For what values of x would the denominators on either of those fractions be zero? Those will define the restrictions on your variable.
Answer:
savage love
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
NPV = $13,676.33
Step-by-step explanation:
First, find the present value of the cash inflows. You can solve this question using a Financial calculator;
14,000 per year is a recurring cashflow hence the PMT
PMT = 14,000
I/Y = 10%
N= 9
FV =0
then CPT PV = 80,626.33
NPV = -Initial investment + PV of future cash inflows
NPV = -66,950 + 80,626.33
NPV = $13,676.33
"NPV" button, then , then "CPT".
The answer to the NPV = $13,676.33
