Answer:
d) (ii) and (iv) only
Explanation:
A price ceiling is usually set by the government or an agency of the government. A price ceiling limits how high producers can sell their product. It sets the maximum price that can be charged for a good or service.
For a price ceiling to be effective, price has to be set below equilibrium price.
Because price is less than equilibrium price, the profits of producers would fall and producers would reduce supply. This would lead to an excess of demand over supply. This is known as a shortage.
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The answer is: A.When the price of a good decreases, sellers produce less of the good
When the price of a good decrease, the amount of profit that the sellers could made is also decreasing. Because of this, sellers would feel less motivation to sell that product and start to reduce the supply of the product and replace it with newer ones.
Answer:
<em>Span of control
</em>
Explanation:
The definition of "<em>Span of control
</em>," also recognized as management ratio, refers to the amount of directly superior-controlled subordinates.
Comprehending small business owners is an especially important principle since small businesses often find themselves in trouble when the entrepreneur ends up with far too large a span of command.
Span of control is a subject taught in schools of management and commonly used in big organizations such as the military, government agencies and academic institutions.
Individual and institutional investors come together on stock exchanges to buy and sell shares in a public venue. Share prices are set by supply and demand as buyers and sellers place orders. Order flow and bid-ask spreads are often maintained by specialists or market makers to ensure an orderly and fair market.
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Complete Question:
A Registered Investment Adviser charges a fee to customers based on a percentage of assets under management. The adviser invests customer funds solely in mutual funds that have a sales charge. Which statement is TRUE?
A. The only disclosure that the adviser must make to the customer is the asset management fee
B. The only disclosure that the adviser must make to the customer is the sales charge
C. The adviser must disclose to the customer both the management fee and sales charge to the customer
D. The adviser is not required to disclose to the customer neither the management fee nor the sales charge
Answer:
C. The adviser must disclose to the customer both the management fee and sales charge to the customer.
Explanation:
A Registered Investment Adviser (RIA) can be defined as an individual or firm saddled with the responsibility of managing and giving advice about securities or assets. It is required by law that all Registered Investment Adviser (RIA) are registered with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) or a state regulatory agency.
Generally, the RIA plays a fiduciary role for investors and as such are required to unconditionally act in the client’s best interests irrespective of the circumstances. Also, the registered investment adviser is expected to disclose any potential conflicts of interest and act responsibly in all of their transactions with the investors.
<em>Hence, it is necessary and important that the registered investment adviser must disclose to the customer both the management fee and sales charge to the customer as a form of transparency.</em>
<em>Additionally, it is required to disclose the fees paid by the registered investment adviser to the certified public accountant (CPA). </em>