Answer:
The following are the answer to this question:
Explanation:
In the given question the correct choice is missing, that can be defined as follows:
In option A, It uses the development of matched-pairs.
In option B, In the score ranking, it uses the test score for both the test.
In option C, This type of variable is the form of presentation, which allows you a treatment, which consists of lectures thru lectures as well as a presentation offering a lesson.
In option D, The answer is students.
In option E, It is used to eradicate prejudice concerning which communication demonstration was first used.
Answer:
Information richness.
Explanation:
<u>Information richness</u> is the amount of information a communication medium can carry and the extent to which the medium enables the sender and receiver to reach a common understanding. This is the correct answer to your question.
Hope this helps!!!
Kyle.
Answer:
Why can't the Fed push the rate any lower than zero?
Real interest rates can be lower than zero, or negative (because inflation rate is higher than interest rate), but nominal interest rates are generally only limited to zero. But during this same time, the European Central Bank actually started paying negative interest rates on money deposits and many European private banks followed. That means that they charged people for having their money on the bank.
Why do you think that the Fed was so seemingly reluctant to push the rate all the way to the floor?
The reason why the Fed was not willing to push the interest rates to zero or even below zero was that by doing so, the US dollar would have depreciated or lost value. In Europe this was done to encourage people to spend their money and not save as much, but in the US that is not really a problem. Generally in the US the problem is that people spend too much and save too little, but on some European countries and Japan, people tend to save too much. For example in Japan the national savings rate fluctuates between 22-40%, while the maximum savings rate in the US has been 10.4% in 1960, it currently is around 7.6%.
Answer:
A. 8.15
Explanation:
WACC is the firm's weighted average cost for the capital that is employed from different sources which includes common equity, preferred equity and debt.
In order to calculate WACC, the weighted average cost of each capital is added, so the formula becomes:
WACC = (E x %E) + (D x (1 - Tax) x %D) + (PE x %PE)
E = Common equity
D = Debt
PE = Preferred equity
%E = Common equity / total capital
%D = Debt / total capital
%PE = Preferred equity / total capital
Tax = Tax rate
<em>Interest on debt is a tax deductible expense therefore the interest rate is taken after accounting for tax in order to calculate WACC.</em>
<u>Calculation:</u>
Using the above formula we can calculate WACC
WACC = (11.25% x 55%) + (6.5% x (1-40%) x 35%) + (6% x 10%)
WACC = 0.0815 or 8.15%
Answer:
1
Explanation:
Elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of quantity demanded to changes in price.
Elasticity of demand = percentage change in quantity demanded / percentage change in price
Percentage change in quantity demanded = (30/20) - 1 = 0.5 = 50%
Percentage change in price = (1500 / 3000) - 1 = 0.5 = 50%
50% / 50% = 1
I hope my answer helps you
