it is not a matter of inference
the reason for Tan believing that "nonstandard English is no less valid than standard English" is related to the fact that Standard English’ was considered as a form of the English language, universal or common in the nineteenth century. By the 1930s, however, it was associated with social class and was seen by many as the language of the educated. On the contrary, speakers from lower classes in the past and today, tend to use nonstandard dialect features because they are more likely to have left education earlier, have non-professional jobs and have no need to associate themselves with a ‘prestige’ way of speaking.
I think the answer A. is a good one. As long as you have the evidence to prove it, it would be A.
Answer:
By making him less afraid by Grey Beaver
Explanation:
This is right
