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Sveta_85 [38]
2 years ago
10

If a firm sells a prestige product, what kind of relationship between price and quantity demanded should it expect?.

Business
1 answer:
solmaris [256]2 years ago
3 0

For a firm that sells a prestige product, the relationship between price and quantity demanded is a <u>positive direct relationship</u>.

<h3>Why is the relationship between demand and price of prestige products direct?</h3>

The relationship between the demand and price of prestige products is direct because prestige products tend to sell better at high prices than at low prices.

And when the quantity demanded increases, the price tends to increase.

An example of a prestige product is an old car.

Thus, for a firm that sells a prestige product, the relationship between price and quantity demanded is a <u>positive direct relationship</u>.

Learn more about the demand for prestige products at brainly.com/question/6374886

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Brandon is responsible for organizing his company’s financial data. This includes a large number of data categories, some relati
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The answer is Relational Database

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Higgins Company plans to incur $380,000 of salaries expense if a capital project is implemented. Assuming a 40% tax rate, the sa
AlexFokin [52]

Answer:

d) $228,000 outflow

Explanation:

Calculation for the amount that the salaries should be reflected in the analysis

Using this formula

Salaries=Salaries expense-(Salaries expense*Tax rate)

Let plug in the formula

Salaries=$380,000-($380,000*40%)

Salaries=$380,000-$152,000

Salaries=$228,000 Outflow

Therefore salaries should be reflected in the analysis by a: $228,000 outflow

8 0
3 years ago
Patty Corporation holds 75 percent of Slider Corporation's voting common stock, acquired at book value. The fair value of the no
Marina86 [1]

Answer:

1) d. $175,000

2) b. $156,250

Explanation:

1. The computation of net income for 20X9 under the treasury stock method is shown below:-

Net income for 20X9 under the treasury stock method = Janet Operating income + Slider operating income

= $100,000 + $75,000

= $175,000

2. The computation of income assigned to the controlling interest for 20X9 is shown below:-

income assigned to the controlling interest for 20X9 = Janet Operating income + (Slider operating income × Remaining percentage)

= $100,000 + ($75,000 × 75%)

= $100,000 + $56,250

= $156,250

Therefore we have applied the above formulas.

5 0
3 years ago
Time Value of Money: Basics Using the equations and tables in Appendix 25A this chapter, determine the answers to each of the fo
kow [346]

Answer:

Present value (PV) = $3,000

Interest rate (r) = 6% = 0.06

Number of years (n) = 2 years

Future value (FV) = ?

FV = PV(1 + r)n

FV = $3,000(1 + 0.06)2

FV = $3,000(1.06)2

FV= $3,000 x 1.1236

FV = $3.370.80                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                    

Explanation:

In this case, there is need to compound the present value for 2 years at 6% interest per annum. The formula to be applied is the formula for future value of a lump sum (single investment).

6 0
3 years ago
How physical assets valuation and development and research pose risk.<br>​
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Answer:

The differences between US GAAP and IFRS pose an extra cost because international corporations must prepare two separate accounting statements. But besides that, other potential risks include paying higher taxes than what the companies should pay int their home countries and the uncertainty generated by changing rules.

Not only do current tax rates affect potential investments, e.g. currently companies in the US pay relatively low corporate taxes (Tax Cuts and Jobs Act of 2017) but these benefits end on 2025. But also different methods for valuating physical assets and R&D costs can represent higher than expected taxes. E.g. depending on a company's needs, it may be beneficial to expense all R&D costs right away, or maybe it would be better to capitalize some of them after technical feasibility is achieved (IFRS).

The main advantage of having uniform rules (e.g. UCC) is that all the companies know exactly what to expect and how to act. Certainty decreases risk, and less risk reduces costs.

Explanation:

In the US, the vast majority of firms use US GAAP as their accounting method, but around the world the IFRS method is used.

Physical asset valuation is the process of determining the value of your physical assets including P, P & E, and also inventories.

  • When valuing inventories IFRS uses FIFO, while US GAAP allows FIFO, LIFO or weighted average costing methods. US GAAP also values inventory at lesser of cost or market value, while IFRS values inventory at lesser of cost or net realizable value.
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  • US GAAP recognizes non-monetary exchanges while IFRS doesn't.
  • IFRS also allows the cost of asset to be revalued, which can result in unrealized gains or losses. The US GAAP only considers historic costs.
  • There are also other minor differences regarding depreciation, disposals and impairment rules.

Research and development must be expensed right away under US GAAP, while IFRS basically requires the same, it allows some capitalization of development expenditures if certain criteria is met (technical feasibility is achieved).

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