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GuDViN [60]
3 years ago
5

Income __________ when there is zero beginning inventory and all inventory units produced are sold. will be lower under variable

costing than absorption costing will be the same under both variable and absorption costing will be higher under variable costing than absorption costing will be higher than gross margin under variable costing
Business
1 answer:
AlladinOne [14]3 years ago
3 0
Income <span>will be the same under both variable and absorption costing</span> when there is zero beginning inventory and all inventory units produced are sold.

Variable costing fluctuates based on level of output while adsorption costing is when manufacturing costs are absorbed by the amount produced. When everything is sold and no inventory is being held, both will be zero since there is nothing to sell or have on hand. 
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Flapjack Corporation had 7,680 actual direct labor hours at an actual rate of $12.45 per hour. Original production had been budg
Mashutka [201]

Answer:

Labour time (efficiency) variance =   $9,984 unfavorable

Explanation:

<em>The labour time variance is the dollar value of the difference between the standard time allowed for the actual output produced and the actual time used.</em>

                                                                            Hours

Standard hours ( 960 units × 7.2 hours )   =   6,912

Actual hours                                                     <u>7,680</u>

Time variance                                                     768 Unfavorable

×  standard labour rate                                     <u>×  $13</u>

 Variance                                                         <u> $9,984 </u>Unfavorable

3 0
3 years ago
Lang Warehouses borrowed $178,960 from a bank and signed a note requiring 8 annual payments of $28,819 beginning one year from t
yan [13]

Answer: 6%

Explanation:

The annual payments can be considered to be annuity payments as they are constant. The amount borrowed can be considered the present value of the annuity.

Present value of annuity = Annuity * Present value interest factor of annuity, 8 years, %?

178,960 = 28,819 * Annuity factor

Annuity factor = 178,960 / 28,819

= 6.20979

To find out the interest rate, look at the Present Value of Annuity table and go to the 8 period column. Look for 6.20979. The interest rate that intersects with this factor is the interest rate implicit in this agreement.

That rate is 6%.

4 0
2 years ago
A company purchased a delivery van for $28,400 with a salvage value of $3,900 on september 1, year 1. it has an estimated useful
Lunna [17]

The deprecation expense in year 1 is $1225.

<h3>What is the depreciation expense in year 1?</h3>

Depreciation is a method that is used to expense the carrying value of an asset. Straight line depreciation is a depreciation method that allocates the deprecation expense evenly across the useful life of the asset.  

Straight line depreciation expense is a function of the useful life of the asset, the cost of the asset and the salvage value of the asset.

Straight line depreciation expense = (number of months from Sept to Dec / number of months in a year) x (Cost of asset - Salvage value) / useful life

(3/12) x [(28,400 - 3900) / 5]

1/4 x (24,500/5) = $1225

To learn more about straight line depreciation, please check: brainly.com/question/6982430

#SPJ1

8 0
1 year ago
Karin Company's loan is due on July 1, 2018. What conditions must Karin meet (at a minimum) so that the note can be classified a
Sindrei [870]

Answer: D. A & C

Explanation:

A long term liability is one that is due to be paid in a period longer than a year. The loan is due in less than a year so the only way to classify it as a long term liability is to make it a loan that will extend past a year. This can be done through refinancing which is to replace the current loan with another loan.  

Karin's company therefore would need to demonstrate that the obligation can be refinanced on a long-term basis by them and they must also have the intention to do so as well.

8 0
3 years ago
A German company wants to buy dollars to purchase U.S. bonds. In the open-economy macroeconomic model of the U.S., this transact
lilavasa [31]

Answer:

The correct answer is d. the supply of currency in the foreign exchange market, and the demand for loanable funds.

Explanation:

In an open economy, we must add the external sector, which includes the Trade Balance or net exports and the Capital or Financial Balance.

Net exports, being part of aggregate expenditure, are incorporated into the SI. However, the inflows and outflows of payment commitments or international financial assets are recorded in the capital account, which gives rise to a new curve, the BB.

We know that in an open economy, monetary phenomena depend on the exchange system that the country follows: fixed or flexible exchange rate.

Under a fixed exchange rate, the variable that is permanently and permanently adjusted to an imbalance in the money market is international reserves.

Under the flexible exchange rate, the adjustment variable is the exchange rate.

With a fixed exchange rate, an increase in the money supply pressures upward on the level of domestic prices, which encourages imports and discourages exports, causing us to lose competitiveness against our business partners. This translates into a permanent and definitive loss of international reserves, which thus constitute the adjustment variable, that is, the monetary phenomenon.

7 0
3 years ago
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