The purchase price or appraised value, whichever is lower, is the correct option when considering loan-to-value ratio in mortgage lending
What does an 80% loan-to-value ratio mean?
The loan-to-value ratio means the percentage of the property worth that the borrower could receive as a loan from the financial institution, which means that the remaining percentage after having deducted the loan-to-value ratio from 100% would be financed by the borrower, which serves as a way to avoid default.
Ordinarily, the loan-to-value ratio is applied to the lower of the selling price or the appraised value of the property, but note that a selling price to one party is the purchase price to another, hence, option d is the most correct
brainly.com/question/4033785
#SPJ1
E yyyymoneymancanudancetekashiesixnine yyyymoneymancanudancetekashiesixninediideboppp yyyymoneymancanudancetekashiesixnine yyyymoneymancanudancetekashiesixnine yyyymoneymancanudancetekashiesixnine yyyymoneymancanudancetekashiesixnine yyyymoneymancanudancetekashiesixnine yyyymoneymancanudancetekashiesixninediideboppp yyyymoneymancanudancetekashiesixnine yyyymoneymancanudancetekashiesixnine yyyymoneymancanudancetekashiesixnine yyyymoneymancanudancetekashiesixnine yyyymoneymancanudancetekashiesixnine yyyymoneymancanudancetekashiesixninediideboppp yyyymoneymancanudancetekashiesixnine yyyymoneymancanudancetekashiesixnine yyyymoneymancanudancetekashiesixnine yyyymoneymancanudancetekashiesixnine yyyymoneymancanudancetekashiesixnine yyyymoneymancanudancetekashiesixninediideboppp yyyymoneymancanudancetekashiesixnine yyyymoneymancanudancetekashiesixnine yyyymoneymancanudancetekashiesixnine yyyymoneymancanudancetekashiesixnine yyyymoneymancanudancetekashiesixnine yyyymoneymancanudancetekashiesixninejdjxkckckckfjejbsbwbebdbdkdowpwpemwmqnabsbxbxhuxicucucicicicicicicicicjxjxixoxoxooc
Answer:
Correct option is (c)
Explanation:
Given:
YTM (yield to maturity) (Rate) = 12%
Coupon rate = 11%
Face value = $1,000,000
Coupon payment (pmt) = 0.11 × 1,000,000 = $110,000
Time period (nper) = 10 years
Selling price of the bond is the present value of the bond which can be computed using spreadsheet function =PV(rate,nper,pmt,FV)
=PV(0.12,10,110000,1000000)
Present value of bond is $943,498 which is close to option (c)
Answer:
$1.7
Explanation:
From the question above Kirova company recorder the following information
Number of issued common shares is 990,000
Net income is $1,436,500
Number of authorized common share is 1,000,000
Weighted average income of outstanding common shares is 845,000
Number of treasury shares is 145,000
The formular to calculate the earning per share is
= Net income/Outstanding shares
Net income= $1,436,500
Outstanding shares= number of issued common shares- number of treasury shares
= 990,000-145,000
= 845,000
Therefore, the earnings per share can be calculated as follows
= 1,436,500/845,000
= $1.7
Hence Kirova's earning per share is $1.7
Answer:
The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Standard cost= 6.90 per ounce
Standard quantity= 4.8 ounces per unit
Actual output 2,100units
Actual price of raw materials $7.80 per ounce
Actual cost of raw materials purchased $81,900
Raw materials used in production 10,090 ounces.
Direct material price variance= (standard price - actual price)*actual quantity
Direct material price variance= (6.9 - 7.8)*10,090= $9,081 unfavorable
