What is the role of the Federal Reserve in the U.S. economy?

Merle Industries had been selling its product for $24 per unit, but recently lowered the selling price to $17 per unit. The comp

Lana71 [14]

Answer:

The company’s inventory be reported on the balance sheet as $3,150.

Explanation:

GAAP and IFRS requires that the inventory of the company should be recorded as Lower cost and Net realizable value of the inventory.

According to given data

Available Inventory = 210 units

Cost of Inventory = 210 units x $20 = $4,200

Net realizable value is the value of the inventory which can be recovered on the immediate sale. the current market value of the inventory is $15.

So,

Net realizable value is = 2,100 units x $15 = $3,150

As the Net realizable value is lower than the cost of the inventory, $3,150 should be reported as inventory on the balance sheet.

7 0

2 years ago

A corporation issued $600,000, 10%, 5-year bonds on January 1, 2017 for $648,666, which reflects an effective-interest rate of 7

VashaNatasha [74]

Answer:

correct option is a. $617,911

Explanation:

given data

issued = $600,000

rate = 10 %

time 5 year

amount = $648,666

effective-interest rate = 7%

solution

we get here carrying value so first we get here Interest paid per semiannual period that is

Interest paid per semiannual period = $600000 ×10% × $\frac{6}{12}$

Interest paid per semiannual period = $30000

and

Interest expense on 30 June = $648666 × 7% × $\frac{6}{12}$

Interest expense on 30 June = $22703

and

Interest expense on 30 December = $641369 × 7% × $\frac{6}{12}$

Interest expense on 30 December = $22448

so

Interest expense on 30 June = ($641369 - $7552) × 7% × $\frac{6}{12}$

Interest expense on 30 June = $22184

and

Interest expense on 30 December = ($633817 - $7816) × 7% × $\frac{6}{12}$

Interest expense on 30 December = $21910

so as that we get Carrying value of 1st January that is

Carrying value of January 1 = $633817 - $7816-8090

Carrying value of January 1 = 617911

so correct option is a. $617,911

7 0

2 years ago

Because saudi arabia and australia have ____, saudi arabia can specialize in the production of crude oil and petroleum products,

Helga [31]

Because saudi arabia and australia have <u>absolute advantage</u>, saudi arabia can specialize in the production of crude oil and petroleum products, and australia can specialize in the production of wool

<h3>What is government?</h3>

Government can be defined as a group of people with the authority to govern a country.

So therefore, because saudi arabia and australia have absolute advantage, saudi arabia can specialize in the production of crude oil and petroleum products, and australia can specialize in the production of wool

Learn more about government:

brainly.com/question/18464634

#SPJ4

5 0

1 year ago

Closing the Accounts of a Merchandiser From the following list, identify the accounts that should be closed to Income Summary at

mixer [17]

Answer:

Advertising Expense , Cost of Merchandise Sold , Merchandise Inventory, Sales,Supplies Expense are closed to income summary account. Revenues and expenses are closed to Income Summary.

Explanation:

Closing Entries

a. Accounts Payable: No it is not closed to income summary account.

b. Advertising Expense: Yes it is closed to income summary account.

c. Cost of Merchandise Sold: Yes it is closed to income summary account.

d. Dividends : No these are closed To Retained Earnings Accounts.

e. Merchandise Inventory : Yes it is closed to income summary account

f. Sales Yes it is closed to income summary account

g. Supplies: No prepaid supplies are an asset account and it is included balance sheet.

h. Supplies Expense: Yes it is closed to income summary account

i. Wages Payable: Not closed in the income summary account.

These are liabilities and included in the balance sheet.

8 0

3 years ago

A machine costs $1,000 and has a 3-year life. the estimated salvage value at the end of three years is $100. the project is expe

AnnyKZ [126]

Cost of machine = $1,000

$NPV of revenues = p( \frac{1- (1+RoR)^{-n} }{RoR} )$ = $600( \frac{1- (1+0.1)^{-3} }{0.1} )$ = $1,492.11

$NPV of salvage value = FV ( \frac{1}{ (1+RoR)^{n} }$ )= $100( \frac{1}{ (1+0.1)^{3} } )$ = $75.13

Total NPV = -1000+1492.11+75.13 = $567.24 ≈ $567

5 0

3 years ago