It takes 1 hour to travel from new york to Washington dc by air and 4 hours by train The airfare is 200 and the train fare is 85

Which of the following describes the substitution effect of a price change?A) The change in demand that results from a change in

Liula [17]

Answer:

The answer is D. The change in quantity demanded of a good that results from a change in price, making the good more or less expensive relative to other goods, holding constant the effect of the price change on consumer purchasing power

Explanation:

Substitution effect is a concept in which, as the price of a good or service increases, less of the good or service is substituted for other less expensive.

For example, if the price of Pepsi were to rise, the substitution effect would cause the consumer to buy less of it and substitute more coca-cola for now relatively more expensive Pepsi.

Option A. is wrong because we are talking about the quantity demanded and not just demand. (Please take note).

6 0

3 years ago

Which command is used to draw visible line form invisible line mode *

KatRina [158]

In Microsoft window logo, the command which is used to draw visible line that forms an invisible line mode is: A. PD.

Microsoft window logo is a programming language that was designed and developed at the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) by George Mills, based on the educational programming language called Logo.

Some of the commands that are used on Microsoft window logo include the following:

FORWARD (fd)

BACK (bk)

HOME

RIGHT (rt)

Pendup (PU)

Pendown (PD)

In Microsoft window logo, the Pendown (PD) command is used to instruct the turtle to draw a visible line or leave ink (tracks) on the screen as it moves. Thus, it is a command which is used to draw visible line while forming an invisible line mode.

Read more on programming language here: brainly.com/question/16901424

6 0

2 years ago

If the actual labor rate exceeds the standard labor rate and the actual labor hours exceed the number of hours allowed, the labo

vladimir2022 [97]

Answer:

Option D

Explanation:

As both, the actual rate and actual hours exceed the standards rate and standard hours, both rate and efficiency variance will be unfavorable.

And considering that if the actual labor rate exceeds the standard labor rate and if the actual labor-hours exceed the number of hours allowed, the total labor flexible budget variance will be unfavorable. As the variance is the difference between the Standard Cost and Actual Cost. So if both Standard rate & Standard hrs. are more than actual rate & actual hrs., Actual cost will be more than standard cost i.e. the variance will be unfavorable

Option d is correct

8 0

3 years ago

Amberjack Company is trying to decide on an allocation base to use to assign manufacturing overhead to jobs. The company has alw

svetoff [14.1K]

Answer:

Results are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Estimated Value Actual Value

Manufacturing overhead cost $732,000 $842,000

Direct labor hours 14,640 hours 16,600 hours

To calculate the predetermined manufacturing overhead rate we need to use the following formula:

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= 732,000 / 14,640

Predetermined manufacturing overhead rate= $50 per direct labor hour

Now, we can allocate overhead:

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

Allocated MOH= 50*16,600

Allocated MOH= $830,000

Finally, the over/under allocation:

Under/over applied overhead= real overhead - allocated overhead

Under/over applied overhead= 842,000 - 830,000

Underapplied overhead= $12,000

8 0

3 years ago

Consider the following cash flows for two mutually exclusive capital investment projects. The required rate of return is 7%. Use

konstantin123 [22]

Answer:

$1,900.35

Explanation:

Net present value is the present value of after tax cash flows from an investment less the amount invested.

The npv can be calculated using a financial calculator:

Cash flow in year 0 = -$32,400

Cash flow in year 1 = $9720

Cash flow in year 2 = $9720

Cash flow in year 3 = $9720

Cash flow in year 4 = $ 4,860

Cash flow in year 5 = $ 4,860

Cash flow in year 6 = $2,430

I =7%

NPV = $1,900.35

To find the NPV using a financial calacutor:

1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

2. After inputting all the cash flows, press the NPV button, input the value for I, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

3. Press compute

I hope my answer helps you

3 0

3 years ago