Using function concepts, it is found that the correct statement is given by:
all of the x-intercepts of f(x) are common to those of g(x).
<h3>What are the x-intercepts of the functions?</h3>
They are the values of x when x = 0, hence:
- For g(x), it is of x = -1 and x = 1.
- For f(x), it is of x = -1.
Hence, the first statement is correct, and the x-intercept x = -1 of f(x) is common to the x-intercept x = -1 of g(x).
More can be learned about function concepts at brainly.com/question/25537936
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