The owner of Tata Motors is: Ratan Tata
Answer:
Explanation:
(a) HPR = Ending Price - Beginning Price + Cash Dividend / Beginning Price
a. The holding period returns for the three scenarios are:
Boom: (48 - 40 + 2.8)/40 = 0.27 = 27%
Normal: (43 - 40 + 1.8)/40 = 0.120 = 12.0%
Recession: (34 - 40 + .90)/40 = -0.1275 = -12.75%
= [(1/3) × 0.27] + [(1/3) × 0.120] + [(1/3) × (-0.1275) =0.08750 or 9%
Variance = [(1/3) × (0.27 - 0.08750)^2] + [(1/3) × (0.120 - 0.08750)^2] + [(1/3) × (-0.1275 - 0.08750)^2] = .026863
Std. Dev = Sq. Rt .026863 = .16390 = 16.39%
(b) E(r) = (0.5 × 8.75%) + (0.5 × 5%) = 6.88%
σ = 0.5 × 16.39% = 8.19%
Thanks
Answer:
$210,000
Explanation:
operating income or EBIT = net sales revenue - cost of goods sold - operating expenses
in this case:
EBIT = $800,000 - $420,000 - $170,000 = $210,000
net income = EBIT - non-operating expenses - income taxes = $210,000 - $10,000 - $80,000 = $120,000
Answer:
$60.87
Explanation:
You can solve this question using time value of money concept. Since this is a dividend paying stock, the recurring dividends are annuities, next year's price is the future value, total duration is 1 year. Use these to calculate the current price; PV
Total duration; N = 1
Interest rate per year ; I/Y = 15%
Future value; FV = 63
Recurring dividend payment; PMT = 7
then compute the present value; CPT PV = 60.87
Therefore, the intrinsic value of this stock is $60.87
Answer:
$6,800 and $6,800
Explanation:
The computation of the depreciation expense for the first year and the second year using the straight line method is shown below:
= (Original cost - residual value) ÷ (useful life)
= ($30,400 - $3,200) ÷ (4 years)
= ($27,200) ÷ (4 years)
= $6,800
In this method, the depreciation is the same for all the remaining useful life
Therefore for the first and second year, the same depreciation expense i.e $6,800 should be charged separately in each year
