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Lostsunrise [7]
1 year ago
11

Even after a foreclosed property is sold at public auction, the defaulting borrower may be able to recover the property for a ti

me by paying the balance plus foreclosure expenses or the foreclosure sale price, depending on the state. This right is called the
Business
1 answer:
9966 [12]1 year ago
8 0

This right is called the right of Redemption

The right of redemption enables borrowers who have fallen behind on their mortgage payments to regain their homes by paying the outstanding balance plus interest and penalties either before the foreclosure process gets underway or, in some areas, even after a foreclosure auction.

When a person takes out a mortgage to purchase a property, the house itself acts as security for the loan. In other words, if a homeowner misses a payment, they lose possession of the house. Many mortgage notes contain a clause referred to as the right of foreclosure that explains a lender's power to foreclose on a property and specifies the circumstances in which the lender may do so.

Learn more about the Redemption here brainly.com/question/13554337

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Abardeen Corporation borrowed $90,000 from the bank on October 1, 2018. The note had an 8 percent annual rate of interest and ma
TiliK225 [7]

Answer:

Interest paid in cash in 2018 = $0

Interest recognized on the Income statement = $1,800

Liabilities recognized = $90,000

Amount paid for Principal and interest = $93,600

Interest reported on 2019 Income statement = 1800

Explanation:

Interest paid in cash in 2018 is zero because interest and principal were paid in cash on the maturity date.

Interest recognized in 2018 = 90000*0.08*3/12 = $1800

liabilities are recognized at original amount because the interest is not capitalized and no payment made thus far.

Amount paid on maturity date is 93,600 ( 90000 principal, 3600 interest)

interest reported is for three months jan - march

7 0
3 years ago
Colliers, Incorporated, has 100,000 shares of cumulative preferred stock outstanding. The preferred stock pays dividends in the
VladimirAG [237]

a. The amount that will go to the preferred stockholders is $400,000.

b. The amount of the declared dividend that will be available for common stock dividends is $200,000 ($600,000 - $400,000).

Data and Calculations:

Cumulative Preferred Stock Outstanding = 100,000 shares

Dividends per share = $2

Cumulative Preferred Dividend last year = $200,000 (100,000 x $2)

Preferred Dividend this year = $200,000 (100,000 x $2)

Total preferred dividend to be paid this year = $400,000

Thus, the Preferred Stockholders will be paid $400,000 ($200,000 for last year and $200,000 for this year).

Learn more: brainly.com/question/24297088

6 0
2 years ago
2.3 The Ledger and Posting
blsea [12.9K]

The net change in the Cash account balance from these three transactions is $30,000

What is the company's net change in cash account balance?

The net change in company's cash balance is the excess of its cash inflows from sources minus its cash outflows from all sources, in other words, the net change in cash balance from the three transactions is the funds raised long-term debt issuance and the amounts paid for equipment and raw materials

net change in cash balance=$200,000-$150,000-$20,000

net change in cash balance=$30,000

Find out more cash flow statement on:brainly.com/question/14942025

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8 0
2 years ago
Which account is not classified as a selling expense? sales salaries delivery expense cost of goods sold advertising expense?
lord [1]
The three out of four in the choices is classified as a selling expense such as sales salaries, delivery expense, and advertising expense. This three are under the account of selling expense while the Cost of good sold or for short COGS is also classified as an expense but the cogs we sold needs to be matched <span>with the pertinent sales on the </span>income<span> statement.</span>
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The Pinkerton Publishing Company is considering two mutually exclusive expansion plans. Plan A calls for the expenditure of $56
myrzilka [38]

Answer:

NPV of Plan A: $15,669,953.

NPV of Plan B: $18.260,647.

For the Plan A, the IRR is r=0.15.

For the Plan B, the IRR is r=0.32.

Explanation:

We have two expansion plans:

Plan A:

- Expenditure: -$56 million

- Cash flow: $9 million/year

- Duration: 20 years

Plan B:

- Expenditure: -$12 million

- Cash flow: $3.8 million/year

- Duration: 20 years

The NPV of plan A can be expressed as:

NPV_A=-I_0+\sum_{k=1}^{20} (CF_k)(1+i)^{-k}\\\\NPV_A=-I_0+(CF)[\frac{1-(1+i)^{-20}}{i}] \\\\NPV_A=-56+9*[\frac{1-(1.11)^{-20}}{0.11}]=-56+9*\frac{0.876}{0.11}=-56+9*7.963328117 \\\\NPV_A=-56+71.66995306= 15.669953

NPV of Plan A: $15,669,953.

The NPV of plan B can be expressed as:

NPV_B=-I_0+\sum_{k=1}^{20} (CF_k)(1+i)^{-k}\\\\NPV_B=-I_0+(CF)[\frac{1-(1+i)^{-20}}{i}] \\\\NPV_B=-12+3.8*[\frac{1-(1.11)^{-20}}{0.11}]=-12+3.8*\frac{0.876}{0.11}=-12+3.8*7.963328117\\\\NPV_B=-12+30.26064685=18.260647

NPV of Plan B: $18.260,647.

To calculate the IRR, we have to clear the discount rate for NPV=0. We can not solve this analitically, but we can do it by iteration (guessing) or by graphing different NPV, with the discount rate as the independent variable.

For the Plan A, the IRR is r=0.15.

For the Plan B, the IRR is r=0.32.

5 0
3 years ago
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